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Odisha SSB TGT (CBZ) – Mock Test 5

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Odisha SSB TGT (CBZ) – Mock Test 5

Based on Latest Odisha SSB TGT (CBZ) Pattern

Total Questions: 100

Total Marks: 150

Time: 2 Hours

Negative Marking: −0.5

BOTANY (Questions 1–28)

Cell Biology

 

1. The fluid mosaic model of plasma membrane was proposed in:

 

A. 1965

B. 1972

C. 1980

D. 1990

 

2. Which cell organelle is known as the "protein factory" of the cell?

 

A. Golgi apparatus

B. Ribosome

C. Mitochondrion

D. Lysosome

 

3. The endoplasmic reticulum without ribosomes is called:

 

A. Rough ER

B. Smooth ER

C. Golgi complex

D. Tonoplast

 

4. The outermost layer of the plant cell wall is:

 

A. Secondary wall

B. Middle lamella

C. Primary wall

D. Plasma membrane

 

5. The main storage polysaccharide in plants is:

 

A. Glycogen

B. Cellulose

C. Starch

D. Chitin

Plant Anatomy

 

6. Casparian strips are composed mainly of:

 

A. Cellulose

B. Lignin

C. Suberin

D. Cutin

 

7. Which tissue transports food in plants?

 

A. Xylem

B. Phloem

C. Cambium

D. Epidermis

 

8. Which xylem element is dead at maturity?

 

A. Companion cell

B. Sieve tube

C. Vessel

D. Albuminous cell

 

9. Cork cambium develops from:

 

A. Epidermis

B. Cortex

C. Phellogen

D. Pericycle

Plant Physiology

 

10. Water moves from soil into roots mainly by:

 

A. Diffusion

B. Osmosis

C. Active transport

D. Imbibition

 

11. During transpiration, water loss occurs mainly through:

 

A. Lenticels

B. Cuticle

C. Stomata

D. Root hairs

 

12. Which mineral is an essential component of chlorophyll?

 

A. Iron

B. Magnesium

C. Zinc

D. Copper

Photosynthesis

 

13. Which photosystem functions first during the light reaction?

 

A. Photosystem I

B. Photosystem II

C. Calvin cycle

D. Rubisco

 

14. NADPH is produced during:

 

A. Calvin cycle

B. Light reaction

C. Glycolysis

D. Krebs cycle

 

15. The first stable product of the Calvin cycle is:

 

A. OAA

B. PEP

C. 3-PGA

D. Pyruvate

 

16. Bundle sheath cells are characteristic of:

 

A. C₃ plants

B. C₄ plants

C. CAM plants

D. Hydrophytes

Respiration

 

17. The electron transport chain is located on:

 

A. Outer mitochondrial membrane

B. Inner mitochondrial membrane

C. Matrix

D. Cytoplasm

 

18. The final electron acceptor in aerobic respiration is:

 

A. CO₂

B. Oxygen

C. NAD⁺

D. Hydrogen

 

19. Fermentation takes place under:

 

A. Aerobic conditions

B. Anaerobic conditions

C. Light

D. High pressure

Plant Growth & Development

 

20. Which hormone is known as the stress hormone?

 

A. Auxin

B. Cytokinin

C. ABA

D. Gibberellin

 

21. Cell elongation is mainly promoted by:

 

A. Ethylene

B. Auxin

C. ABA

D. Cytokinin

Genetics

 

22. Mendel selected pea plants because:

 

A. They have a short life cycle

B. They show many contrasting traits

C. They are naturally self-pollinated

D. All of the above

 

23. The test cross was introduced by:

 

A. Mendel

B. Morgan

C. Bateson

D. None of these

 

24. Crossing over occurs during:

 

A. Leptotene

B. Zygotene

C. Pachytene

D. Diplotene

Biotechnology & Ecology

 

25. PCR was developed by:

 

A. Watson

B. Kary Mullis

C. Crick

D. Temin

 

26. Which biodiversity hotspot includes Odisha?

 

A. Western Ghats

B. Himalaya

C. Indo-Burma

D. Sundaland

 

27. Which of the following is an in-situ conservation method?

 

A. Botanical garden

B. Seed bank

C. National Park

D. Tissue culture

 

28. The ozone layer is mainly present in:

 

A. Troposphere

B. Mesosphere

C. Stratosphere

D. Thermosphere

 

Q. No.

Ans

Q. No.

Ans

Q. No.

Ans

Q. No.

Ans

1

B

8

C

15

C

22

D

2

B

9

C

16

B

23

D

3

B

10

B

17

B

24

C

4

B

11

C

18

B

25

B

5

C

12

B

19

B

26

C

6

C

13

B

20

C

27

C

7

B

14

B

21

B

28

C

 

ZOOLOGY (Questions 29–56)

Human Physiology, Genetics, Evolution, Biotechnology & Ecology

Human Physiology – Digestion

 

29. The enzyme that converts proteins into peptides in the stomach is:

 

A. Trypsin

B. Pepsin

C. Amylase

D. Lipase

 

30. The pH of gastric juice is approximately:

 

A. 1.5–2.5

B. 5–6

C. 7

D. 8–9

 

31. Which vitamin is synthesized by intestinal bacteria?

 

A. Vitamin A

B. Vitamin C

C. Vitamin K

D. Vitamin D

Respiration

 

32. The functional unit of the lung is:

 

A. Nephron

B. Alveolus

C. Bronchiole

D. Trachea

 

33. Oxygen is transported in blood mainly as:

 

A. Dissolved in plasma

B. Oxyhaemoglobin

C. Carbaminohaemoglobin

D. Bicarbonate ions

 

34. The respiratory centre is located in the:

 

A. Cerebrum

B. Cerebellum

C. Medulla oblongata

D. Hypothalamus

Circulatory System

 

35. The universal donor blood group is:

 

A. A

B. B

C. AB

D. O

 

36. Which blood vessel carries oxygenated blood from the lungs to the heart?

 

A. Pulmonary artery

B. Pulmonary vein

C. Aorta

D. Vena cava

 

37. The lifespan of human RBCs is approximately:

 

A. 60 days

B. 90 days

C. 120 days

D. 150 days

Excretion

 

38. Bowman's capsule is a part of:

 

A. Liver

B. Nephron

C. Heart

D. Pancreas

 

39. The normal pH of human urine is around:

 

A. 2

B. 4

C. 6

D. 9

Nervous System

 

40. The insulating covering of nerve fibres is called:

 

A. Axon

B. Myelin sheath

C. Dendrite

D. Synapse

 

41. Which part of the brain regulates body temperature?

 

A. Cerebellum

B. Hypothalamus

C. Medulla

D. Pons

Endocrine System

 

42. Insulin deficiency causes:

 

A. Goitre

B. Diabetes mellitus

C. Cretinism

D. Acromegaly

 

43. The hormone responsible for the "fight or flight" response is:

 

A. Insulin

B. Thyroxine

C. Adrenaline

D. Cortisol

Reproduction

 

44. Human sperm contains:

 

A. 46 chromosomes

B. 23 chromosomes

C. 44 chromosomes

D. 48 chromosomes

 

45. Fertilization normally occurs in the:

 

A. Ovary

B. Uterus

C. Fallopian tube

D. Vagina

 

46. The placenta develops from:

 

A. Endometrium only

B. Foetal chorion and maternal endometrium

C. Ovary

D. Cervix

Genetics & Biotechnology

 

47. Mendel is known as the:

 

A. Father of Evolution

B. Father of Genetics

C. Father of Cytology

D. Father of Ecology

 

48. The basic unit of heredity is:

 

A. Chromosome

B. Gene

C. DNA

D. Nucleotide

 

49. The Human Genome Project was completed in:

 

A. 1990

B. 1995

C. 2003

D. 2010

 

50. DNA fingerprinting was developed by:

 

A. Watson

B. Alec Jeffreys

C. Crick

D. Mendel

Evolution

 

51. The theory of inheritance of acquired characters was proposed by:

 

A. Darwin

B. Lamarck

C. Hugo de Vries

D. Mendel

 

52. The strongest evidence for evolution is provided by:

 

A. Embryology

B. Fossils

C. Physiology

D. Histology

Ecology

 

53. The transfer of energy from one trophic level to the next is approximately:

 

A. 1%

B. 10%

C. 25%

D. 50%

 

54. The largest ecosystem on Earth is:

 

A. Forest

B. Desert

C. Ocean

D. Grassland

 

55. Which gas contributes most to the greenhouse effect?

 

A. Oxygen

B. Carbon dioxide

C. Nitrogen

D. Hydrogen

 

56. Ramsar Convention is related to the conservation of:

 

A. Forests

B. Wetlands

C. Deserts

D. Mountains

 

Q. No.

Ans

Q. No.

Ans

Q. No.

Ans

Q. No.

Ans

29

B

36

B

43

C

50

B

30

A

37

C

44

B

51

B

31

C

38

B

45

C

52

B

32

B

39

C

46

B

53

B

33

B

40

B

47

B

54

C

34

C

41

B

48

B

55

B

35

D

42

B

49

C

56

B


CHEMISTRY (Questions 57–84)

Physical Chemistry, Inorganic Chemistry, Organic Chemistry & Environmental Chemistry

Physical Chemistry

 

57. The number of significant figures in 0.00560 is:

 

A. 2

B. 3

C. 4

D. 5

 

58. One mole of an ideal gas occupies 22.4 L at:

 

A. STP

B. NTP

C. RTP

D. 25°C and 2 atm

 

59. The molarity of a solution containing 58.5 g of NaCl in 1 L solution is:

 

A. 0.5 M

B. 1 M

C. 2 M

D. 5 M

 

60. The oxidation number of sulphur in H₂SO₄ is:

 

A. +4

B. +5

C. +6

D. +2

 

61. Which law states that equal volumes of gases at the same temperature and pressure contain equal numbers of molecules?

 

A. Boyle's Law

B. Charles' Law

C. Avogadro's Law

D. Dalton's Law

 

62. The catalyst used in the Contact Process is:

 

A. Iron

B. Platinum

C. Vanadium pentoxide (V₂O₅)

D. Nickel

 

63. The SI unit of entropy is:

 

A. J K⁻¹ mol⁻¹

B. Joule

C. Pascal

D. Watt

Inorganic Chemistry

 

64. Which of the following is an amphoteric oxide?

 

A. Na₂O

B. MgO

C. Al₂O₃

D. SO₂

 

65. The element with the highest first ionization energy is:

 

A. Sodium

B. Fluorine

C. Helium

D. Neon

 

66. Which of the following is a transition element?

 

A. Calcium

B. Zinc

C. Iron

D. Sodium

 

67. The oxidation state of chromium in K₂Cr₂O₇ is:

 

A. +3

B. +4

C. +6

D. +7

 

68. Which gas is liberated when dilute HCl reacts with zinc?

 

A. Oxygen

B. Hydrogen

C. Chlorine

D. Nitrogen

 

69. The ore of mercury is:

 

A. Galena

B. Bauxite

C. Cinnabar

D. Magnetite

 

70. Brass is an alloy of:

 

A. Copper and Tin

B. Copper and Zinc

C. Copper and Nickel

D. Iron and Carbon

Organic Chemistry

 

71. The IUPAC name of CH₃COOH is:

 

A. Methanoic acid

B. Ethanoic acid

C. Propanoic acid

D. Acetic alcohol

 

72. Which compound shows geometrical isomerism?

 

A. Ethane

B. Ethene

C. But-2-ene

D. Methane

 

73. Benzene undergoes mainly:

 

A. Addition reaction

B. Substitution reaction

C. Elimination reaction

D. Polymerization

 

74. Which functional group is present in aldehydes?

 

A. –COOH

B. –OH

C. –CHO

D. –NH₂

 

75. Nylon-6,6 is prepared from:

 

A. Ethene

B. Hexamethylenediamine and Adipic acid

C. Styrene

D. Vinyl chloride

 

76. The major constituent of LPG is:

 

A. Methane

B. Ethane

C. Propane and Butane

D. Acetylene

 

77. Glucose belongs to:

 

A. Monosaccharides

B. Disaccharides

C. Polysaccharides

D. Proteins

Environmental Chemistry

 

78. Which gas is mainly responsible for photochemical smog?

 

A. SO₂

B. NOₓ

C. CO₂

D. H₂

 

79. The pH of acid rain is generally:

 

A. Above 7

B. 7

C. Below 5.6

D. 9

 

80. Which of the following is a biodegradable pollutant?

 

A. Plastic

B. DDT

C. Vegetable waste

D. Polythene

Applied Chemistry

 

81. The chemical formula of bleaching powder is:

 

A. CaOCl₂

B. CaCl₂

C. NaClO

D. CaCO₃

 

82. The gas evolved during photosynthesis is:

 

A. CO₂

B. O₂

C. N₂

D. H₂

 

83. Which acid is present in curd?

 

A. Citric acid

B. Oxalic acid

C. Lactic acid

D. Acetic acid

 

84. Which metal is used in galvanization of iron?

 

A. Copper

B. Zinc

C. Aluminium

D. Tin


Q. No.

Ans

Q. No.

Ans

Q. No.

Ans

Q. No.

Ans

57

B

64

C

71

B

78

B

58

A

65

C

72

C

79

C

59

B

66

C

73

B

80

C

60

C

67

C

74

C

81

A

61

C

68

B

75

B

82

B

62

C

69

C

76

C

83

C

63

A

70

B

77

A

84

B

 

PEDAGOGY & EVALUATION (Questions 85–100)

Educational Psychology, Teaching Methodology, Assessment & Evaluation, Inclusive Education, ICT & NEP 2020

Educational Psychology

 

85. According to Jean Piaget, the stage in which abstract thinking begins is:

 

A. Sensorimotor Stage

B. Pre-operational Stage

C. Concrete Operational Stage

D. Formal Operational Stage

 

86. The concept of the Zone of Proximal Development (ZPD) was proposed by:

 

A. B.F. Skinner

B. Jean Piaget

C. Lev Vygotsky

D. Jerome Bruner

 

87. The theory of Multiple Intelligences was proposed by:

 

A. Charles Spearman

B. Howard Gardner

C. Alfred Binet

D. Guilford

 

88. "Learning by Doing" is mainly associated with:

 

A. John Dewey

B. Ivan Pavlov

C. Thorndike

D. Freud

Teaching Methodology

 

89. Which teaching method is most suitable for developing scientific inquiry skills?

 

A. Lecture Method

B. Demonstration Method

C. Inquiry Method

D. Dictation Method

 

90. In the 5E instructional model, the first phase is:

 

A. Explore

B. Explain

C. Engage

D. Evaluate

 

91. Which of the following is a learner-centred teaching strategy?

 

A. Lecture Method

B. Project Method

C. Dictation Method

D. Recitation Method

 

92. The primary objective of using a science laboratory is to:

 

A. Memorize scientific facts

B. Develop experimental skills and scientific attitude

C. Complete the syllabus quickly

D. Conduct examinations

Assessment & Evaluation

 

93. Assessment conducted before starting instruction to determine learners' prior knowledge is:

 

A. Formative Assessment

B. Diagnostic Assessment

C. Placement Assessment

D. Summative Assessment

 

94. Which of the following is an objective type test item?

 

A. Essay

B. Short Answer

C. Multiple Choice Question

D. Long Answer

 

95. A good achievement test should have:

 

A. Reliability only

B. Validity only

C. Reliability, Validity and Objectivity

D. Difficult questions only

 

96. Continuous and Comprehensive Evaluation (CCE) mainly emphasizes:

 

A. Only annual examination

B. Continuous assessment of scholastic and co-scholastic development

C. Memorization

D. Ranking students only

Inclusive Education & ICT

 

97. The principle of inclusive education is:

 

A. Separate education for children with disabilities

B. Equal educational opportunities for all learners

C. Admission only for gifted children

D. Excluding slow learners

 

98. ICT integration in science teaching mainly helps to:

 

A. Replace teachers completely

B. Improve visualization and interactive learning

C. Eliminate practical work

D. Reduce student participation

NEP 2020 & Professional Ethics

 

99. NEP 2020 recommends assessment that is:

 

A. Memory-based only

B. Competency-based and holistic

C. Limited to board examinations

D. Focused only on marks

 

100. A professionally competent teacher should:

 

A. Continuously update subject knowledge and teaching skills

B. Depend only on textbooks

C. Avoid educational technology

D. Discourage classroom discussion

 

Q. No.

Answer

Q. No.

Answer

Q. No.

Answer

Q. No.

Answer

85

D

89

C

93

C

97

B

86

C

90

C

94

C

98

B

87

B

91

B

95

C

99

B

88

A

92

B

96

B

100

A

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