Odisha SSB TGT (CBZ) – Mock Test 4

Odisha SSB TGT (CBZ) – Mock Test 4

Higher Difficulty Level (SSB TGT Pattern)

Total Questions: 100 | Total Marks: 150 | Time: 2 Hours

BOTANY (Questions 1–28)

Plant Cell Biology & Molecular Biology

1. The middle lamella of plant cells is mainly composed of:

A. Cellulose

B. Calcium pectate

C. Lignin

D. Suberin

2. The fluid mosaic model of plasma membrane was proposed by:

A. Watson and Crick

B. Singer and Nicolson

C. Schleiden and Schwann

D. Robertson

3. The site of ribosomal RNA synthesis in the nucleus is:

A. Nucleoplasm

B. Nuclear membrane

C. Nucleolus

D. Chromatin

4. A semi-autonomous organelle of plant cell is:

A. Golgi body

B. Lysosome

C. Chloroplast

D. Vacuole

5. The enzyme responsible for DNA replication is:

A. DNA polymerase

B. RNA polymerase

C. Ligase

D. Helicase only

Genetics

6. Mendel's law of independent assortment is applicable when genes are located:

A. On the same chromosome

B. On different chromosomes

C. Only in mitochondria

D. In ribosomes

7. The phenotypic ratio of a dihybrid cross is:

A. 3:1

B. 1:2:1

C. 9:3:3:1

D. 1:1

8. Incomplete dominance was first reported in:

A. Pea

B. Snapdragon

C. Maize

D. Drosophila

9. The enzyme that joins Okazaki fragments is:

A. Helicase

B. DNA ligase

C. Primase

D. Topoisomerase

10. The genetic code is:

A. Doublet

B. Triplet

C. Singlet

D. Quartet

Plant Physiology

11. Water potential of pure water is:

A. Positive

B. Zero

C. Negative

D. Infinite

12. Opening of stomata occurs due to:

A. Loss of potassium ions from guard cells

B. Entry of potassium ions into guard cells

C. Loss of water from guard cells

D. Death of guard cells

13. Transpiration is maximum through:

A. Cuticle

B. Stomata

C. Lenticels

D. Roots

14. Photorespiration involves:

A. Chloroplast only

B. Mitochondria only

C. Chloroplast, peroxisome and mitochondria

D. Cytoplasm only

15. The primary CO₂ acceptor in C₄ plants is:

A. RuBP

B. PEP

C. PGA

D. OAA

Plant Anatomy & Reproduction

16. Vascular cambium produces:

A. Primary xylem only

B. Secondary xylem and phloem

C. Epidermis

D. Cortex

17. Companion cells are associated with:

A. Xylem

B. Phloem

C. Collenchyma

D. Sclerenchyma

18. The protective covering of seed is:

A. Nucellus

B. Testa

C. Endosperm

D. Embryo

19. Double fertilization is found in:

A. Gymnosperms

B. Angiosperms

C. Bryophytes

D. Pteridophytes

20. Endosperm in angiosperms is generally:

A. Haploid

B. Diploid

C. Triploid

D. Tetraploid

Ecology & Biotechnology

21. Nitrogen fixation in leguminous plants occurs due to:

A. Azotobacter

B. Rhizobium

C. Nostoc

D. Lactobacillus

22. The pioneer species in xerarch succession are:

A. Mosses

B. Lichens

C. Grasses

D. Trees

23. The Red Data Book contains information about:

A. Common plants

B. Endangered species

C. Medicinal plants only

D. Crop plants

24. PCR requires:

A. DNA polymerase

B. RNA polymerase

C. Lipase

D. Amylase

25. Bt toxin is produced by:

A. Bacillus thuringiensis

B. Agrobacterium

C. Rhizobium

D. E.coli

26. Golden rice is genetically modified to produce:

A. Vitamin A precursor

B. Vitamin C

C. Protein

D. Iron only

27. The basic unit of ecology is:

A. Population

B. Community

C. Ecosystem

D. Biosphere

28. The process of development of plants from meristematic cells is:

A. Differentiation

B. Dedifferentiation

C. Redifferentiation

D. All of these

Q. No.	Answer	Q. No.	Answer	Q. No.	Answer	Q. No.	Answer
1	B	8	B	15	B	22	B
2	B	9	B	16	B	23	B
3	C	10	B	17	B	24	A
4	C	11	B	18	B	25	A
5	A	12	B	19	B	26	A
6	B	13	B	20	C	27	C
7	C	14	C	21	B	28	D

ZOOLOGY (Questions 29–56)

Human Physiology, Genetics, Evolution & Ecology

Human Physiology

29. The respiratory pigment present in human blood is:

A. Myoglobin

B. Haemoglobin

C. Haemocyanin

D. Chlorocruorin

30. The exchange of gases in lungs occurs through:

A. Active transport

B. Diffusion

C. Osmosis

D. Filtration

31. The functional unit of the kidney is:

A. Neuron

B. Nephron

C. Alveolus

D. Sarcomere

32. Ultrafiltration of blood occurs in:

A. Loop of Henle

B. Glomerulus

C. Collecting duct

D. Distal tubule

33. ADH hormone increases:

A. Glucose absorption

B. Water reabsorption

C. Protein synthesis

D. RBC formation

34. The pacemaker of human heart is:

A. AV node

B. SA node

C. Bundle of His

D. Purkinje fibres

35. The largest artery in the human body is:

A. Pulmonary artery

B. Aorta

C. Coronary artery

D. Carotid artery

Digestive System

36. The enzyme pepsin acts on:

A. Carbohydrates

B. Proteins

C. Fats

D. Vitamins

37. Bile juice is produced by:

A. Pancreas

B. Liver

C. Gall bladder

D. Stomach

38. The absorption of nutrients mainly occurs in:

A. Stomach

B. Small intestine

C. Large intestine

D. Rectum

Nervous System

39. The structural and functional unit of nervous system is:

A. Nephron

B. Neuron

C. Axon

D. Synapse

40. The part of brain responsible for balance and posture is:

A. Cerebrum

B. Cerebellum

C. Medulla

D. Hypothalamus

41. Reflex action is controlled mainly by:

A. Brain

B. Spinal cord

C. Cerebellum

D. Thalamus

Endocrine System

42. Insulin is secreted by:

A. Alpha cells

B. Beta cells

C. Delta cells

D. Acinar cells

43. The master gland of endocrine system is:

A. Thyroid

B. Pituitary

C. Adrenal

D. Pineal

44. Deficiency of thyroxine causes:

A. Diabetes

B. Goitre

C. Anaemia

D. Rickets

Reproduction

45. Testosterone is produced by:

A. Sertoli cells

B. Leydig cells

C. Ovum

D. Placenta

46. Fertilization in humans occurs in:

A. Ovary

B. Uterus

C. Fallopian tube

D. Cervix

47. Placenta helps in:

A. Digestion

B. Exchange of materials between mother and foetus

C. Production of RBC only

D. Formation of sperm

Genetics & Molecular Biology

48. DNA double helix model was proposed by:

A. Watson and Crick

B. Mendel

C. Darwin

D. Morgan

49. The process of conversion of DNA information into RNA is:

A. Translation

B. Transcription

C. Replication

D. Mutation

50. The codon is present on:

A. tRNA

B. mRNA

C. rRNA

D. DNA polymerase

Evolution

51. Natural selection theory was proposed by:

A. Lamarck

B. Darwin

C. Mendel

D. De Vries

52. Homologous organs indicate:

A. Convergent evolution

B. Divergent evolution

C. Mutation

D. Artificial selection

Ecology & Environment

53. The first trophic level is occupied by:

A. Consumers

B. Producers

C. Decomposers

D. Carnivores

54. Energy flow in an ecosystem is:

A. Cyclic

B. One directional

C. Random

D. Reversible

55. The major cause of ozone depletion is:

A. CO₂

B. CFCs

C. SO₂

D. Methane

56. Organisms that break down dead organic matter are:

A. Producers

B. Consumers

C. Decomposers

D. Parasites

Q. No.	Answer	Q. No.	Answer	Q. No.	Answer	Q. No.	Answer
29	B	36	B	43	B	50	B
30	B	37	B	44	B	51	B
31	B	38	B	45	B	52	B
32	B	39	B	46	C	53	B
33	B	40	B	47	B	54	B
34	B	41	B	48	A	55	B
35	B	42	B	49	B	56	C

CHEMISTRY (Questions 57–84)

Physical Chemistry, Inorganic Chemistry, Organic Chemistry & Environmental Chemistry

Physical Chemistry

57. The SI unit of amount of substance is:

A. Gram

B. Mole

C. Kilogram

D. Litre

58. Avogadro number represents:

A. Number of atoms in 1 gram

B. Number of particles in one mole

C. Number of electrons in hydrogen

D. Number of molecules in one litre gas

59. The value of gas constant (R) in SI unit is:

A. 8.314 J mol⁻¹ K⁻¹

B. 22.4 L atm

C. 1.987 cal

D. 760 mm Hg

60. A solution with pH 3 is:

A. Neutral

B. Acidic

C. Basic

D. Salt solution

61. The rate constant of a reaction depends on:

A. Concentration

B. Temperature

C. Amount of reactant

D. Volume only

62. The energy required to start a chemical reaction is called:

A. Ionization energy

B. Activation energy

C. Bond energy

D. Kinetic energy

63. Which law states that volume of a gas is directly proportional to temperature at constant pressure?

A. Boyle's law

B. Charles' law

C. Dalton's law

D. Henry's law

Inorganic Chemistry

64. The electronic configuration of sodium (Na) is:

A. 2,8,1

B. 2,8,2

C. 2,7,1

D. 2,6,3

65. The most electronegative element is:

A. Oxygen

B. Fluorine

C. Chlorine

D. Nitrogen

66. The oxidation state of oxygen in H₂O₂ is:

A. –2

B. –1

C. +1

D. +2

67. The ore of aluminium is:

A. Haematite

B. Bauxite

C. Galena

D. Cinnabar

68. The process used for concentration of sulphide ores is:

A. Magnetic separation

B. Froth flotation

C. Leaching

D. Distillation

69. Which metal is stored under kerosene?

A. Copper

B. Sodium

C. Iron

D. Aluminium

70. The alloy brass contains:

A. Copper and zinc

B. Copper and tin

C. Iron and carbon

D. Aluminium and copper

Organic Chemistry

71. The functional group of alcohol is:

A. –CHO

B. –OH

C. –COOH

D. –NH₂

72. The IUPAC name of CH₃CH₂OH is:

A. Methanol

B. Ethanol

C. Propanol

D. Ethanal

73. The hybridization of carbon in methane is:

A. sp

B. sp²

C. sp³

D. sp³d

74. Benzene undergoes mainly:

A. Addition reaction

B. Substitution reaction

C. Elimination reaction

D. Redox reaction

75. Proteins are polymers of:

A. Fatty acids

B. Amino acids

C. Nucleotides

D. Glucose

76. Nylon is an example of:

A. Natural polymer

B. Synthetic polymer

C. Protein

D. Carbohydrate

77. Methane is also known as:

A. Marsh gas

B. Laughing gas

C. Water gas

D. Producer gas

Environmental Chemistry

78. The main gas responsible for global warming is:

A. Oxygen

B. Carbon dioxide

C. Nitrogen

D. Hydrogen

79. Acid rain is mainly caused by:

A. SO₂ and NOₓ

B. CO₂ only

C. O₂

D. H₂

80. The ozone layer protects Earth from:

A. Infrared rays

B. UV radiation

C. Radio waves

D. Visible light

Applied Chemistry

81. The chemical formula of ammonia is:

A. NH₃

B. NO₂

C. N₂O

D. NH₄Cl

82. The catalyst used in Haber process is:

A. Nickel

B. Iron

C. Platinum

D. Copper

83. The bleaching action of chlorine is due to:

A. Reduction

B. Oxidation

C. Neutralization

D. Hydrolysis

84. Rusting of iron is an example of:

A. Reduction

B. Oxidation

C. Sublimation

D. Neutralization

Q. No.	Answer	Q. No.	Answer	Q. No.	Answer	Q. No.	Answer
57	B	64	A	71	B	78	B
58	B	65	B	72	B	79	A
59	A	66	B	73	C	80	B
60	B	67	B	74	B	81	A
61	B	68	B	75	B	82	B
62	B	69	B	76	B	83	B
63	B	70	A	77	A	84	B

PEDAGOGY & EVALUATION (Questions 85–100)

Educational Psychology, Teaching Methodology, Assessment, Inclusive Education & NEP 2020

Educational Psychology

85. According to Piaget, the ability of logical thinking about concrete objects develops during:

A. Sensorimotor stage

B. Pre-operational stage

C. Concrete operational stage

D. Formal operational stage

86. The theory of social constructivism was proposed by:

A. Skinner

B. Vygotsky

C. Pavlov

D. Thorndike

87. Classical conditioning theory was given by:

A. Skinner

B. Pavlov

C. Bandura

D. Kohler

88. The concept of "Discovery Learning" is associated with:

A. Jerome Bruner

B. Freud

C. Watson

D. Maslow

Teaching Methodology

89. The most suitable method for teaching science concepts through investigation is:

A. Lecture method

B. Inquiry method

C. Dictation method

D. Drill method

90. A teacher who encourages students to construct their own knowledge follows:

A. Behaviourism

B. Constructivism

C. Rote learning

D. Authoritarian approach

91. Demonstration method is most useful when:

A. Students need to observe a process or experiment

B. Only memorization is required

C. No teaching aid is available

D. Teacher avoids interaction

92. The main purpose of a teaching aid is to:

A. Replace the teacher

B. Make learning clear and effective

C. Reduce student participation

D. Increase homework

Assessment & Evaluation

93. A test used to identify learning difficulties is:

A. Summative test

B. Diagnostic test

C. Achievement test

D. Aptitude test

94. Assessment carried out during the teaching process is:

A. Formative assessment

B. Summative assessment

C. Terminal assessment

D. Placement assessment

95. Reliability of a test refers to:

A. Consistency of measurement

B. Difficulty level

C. Length of question paper

D. Number of questions

96. Evaluation conducted at the end of a course is:

A. Formative evaluation

B. Diagnostic evaluation

C. Summative evaluation

D. Continuous evaluation

Inclusive Education

97. Inclusive education means:

A. Educating all children together with support

B. Separating children with disabilities

C. Teaching only gifted children

D. Ignoring individual differences

98. CWSN stands for:

A. Children With Special Needs

B. Children With Social Nature

C. Child Welfare School Network

D. Community Work Support Network

ICT & NEP 2020

99. NEP 2020 emphasizes:

A. Rote memorization

B. Competency-based learning

C. Only textbook learning

D. Teacher-centred education

100. The role of a teacher in modern education is mainly:

A. Information provider only

B. Facilitator of learning

C. Controller of students

D. Examiner only

Q. No.	Answer	Q. No.	Answer	Q. No.	Answer	Q. No.	Answer
85	C	89	B	93	B	97	A
86	B	90	B	94	A	98	A
87	B	91	A	95	A	99	B
88	A	92	B	96	C	100	B