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Computer Awareness & Fundamentals — Set 06

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Computer Awareness & Fundamentals — Set 06

Standard: OSSSC, OSSC, Odisha Police, Banking, SSC CGL/CHSL, Railways & Teaching Exams | 50 Fresh Basic-Level MCQs.

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Kumar EduWorld • General Awareness Series

Computer Awareness & Fundamentals — Set 06 

Target: OSSSC, OSSC, Odisha Police, Banking, SSC CGL/CHSL, Railways & Teaching Exams | 50 Fresh Foundational MCQs
Note: Touch/Tap "👉 Touch to Show Answer & Explanation" under each question to reveal the correct option and detailed analysis.

1. Who developed the first operational mechanical loom controlled by punched cards in 1804, inspiring early computer data storage concepts?

👉 Touch to Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: A) Joseph Marie Jacquard

Explanation: Jacquard's automated textile loom used punched paper cards to direct weaving patterns, an approach Charles Babbage later adapted for the Analytical Engine's program input.

2. Which pioneering electronic computer, completed in 1945 by Eckert and Mauchly at the University of Pennsylvania, is considered the first general-purpose electronic digital computer?

  • A) ENIAC
  • B) EDVAC
  • C) UNIVAC I
  • D) Colossus
👉 Touch to Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: A) ENIAC

Explanation: ENIAC (Electronic Numerical Integrator and Computer) was the first programmable general-purpose electronic digital computer, built using over 17,000 vacuum tubes.

3. The upcoming Fifth Generation of computing focuses fundamentally on which cutting-edge architectural paradigm?

  • A) Vacuum Tubes
  • B) Transistors and Magnetic Cores
  • C) Artificial Intelligence (AI) and Quantum Computing
  • D) Mechanical Relays
👉 Touch to Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: C) Artificial Intelligence (AI) and Quantum Computing

Explanation: Fifth-generation computing centers on parallel processing, natural language comprehension, neural networks, machine learning, and quantum logic systems.

4. What type of personal computer form factor integrates the system components (CPU, motherboard, storage) into the same physical housing as the display monitor?

  • A) Tower PC
  • B) All-in-One (AIO) Desktop
  • C) Server Rack
  • D) Mainframe
👉 Touch to Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: B) All-in-One (AIO) Desktop

Explanation: An All-in-One computer (e.g., Apple iMac) integrates the motherboard, processor, speakers, and display into a single monitor enclosure, eliminating a separate computer tower.

5. Which programming language was created by John Kemeny and Thomas Kurtz in 1964 as an easy-to-learn teaching tool for college students?

  • A) FORTRAN
  • B) BASIC
  • C) COBOL
  • D) Ada
👉 Touch to Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: B) BASIC

Explanation: BASIC (Beginner's All-purpose Symbolic Instruction Code) was created at Dartmouth College to enable non-science students to write programs on time-shared systems.

6. The physical internal wire pathways that connect the processor to external high-speed PCIe peripheral slots are collectively controlled by the:

  • A) Expansion Bus
  • B) Power Bus
  • C) Serial Bus
  • D) Optical Bus
👉 Touch to Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: A) Expansion Bus

Explanation: The expansion bus provides electrical paths and protocols allowing peripheral adapter cards (graphics, sound, capture cards) to communicate with CPU and RAM.

7. How many bits make up one standard American Standard Code for Information Interchange (ASCII) character in Extended ASCII?

  • A) 4 bits
  • B) 7 bits
  • C) 8 bits
  • D) 16 bits
👉 Touch to Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: C) 8 bits

Explanation: Standard ASCII uses 7 bits ($2^7 = 128$ characters), while Extended ASCII uses a full 8-bit byte ($2^8 = 256$ symbols), incorporating accented letters and box-drawing lines.

8. What is the storage capacity of a standard single-sided, dual-layer DVD disc (DVD-9)?

  • A) 4.7 GB
  • B) 8.5 GB
  • C) 17.08 GB
  • D) 25 GB
👉 Touch to Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: B) 8.5 GB

Explanation: A single-layer DVD (DVD-5) holds 4.7 GB. A dual-layer DVD (DVD-9) uses two readable substrate layers on one side to hold roughly 8.5 GB.

9. What type of non-volatile solid-state memory can be electrically erased and reprogrammed in in-circuit flash memory cells without needing UV light?

  • A) PROM
  • B) EPROM
  • C) EEPROM
  • D) SRAM
👉 Touch to Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: C) EEPROM

Explanation: EEPROM (Electrically Erasable Programmable Read-Only Memory) uses electrical voltage pulses to erase and rewrite data without removing the chip from the circuit board.

10. What is the high-speed interface protocol designed specifically for accessing high-throughput solid-state drives (SSDs) directly over the PCI Express bus?

  • A) SATA
  • B) NVMe (Non-Volatile Memory Express)
  • C) IDE
  • D) SCSI
👉 Touch to Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: B) NVMe (Non-Volatile Memory Express)

Explanation: NVMe connects flash storage directly to PCIe lanes with deep command queues, bypassing the throughput bottlenecks and command limitations of legacy SATA interfaces.

11. Which peripheral pointing device consists of an exposed ball resting in a socket with sensors that detect rotation around two axes while the housing remains stationary?

  • A) Trackball
  • B) Optical Mouse
  • C) Stylus
  • D) Light Pen
👉 Touch to Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: A) Trackball

Explanation: A trackball keeps the base stationary on the desk while the user rolls the top ball with their thumb or fingers, making it ideal for ergonomic use and confined workspaces.

12. What type of display monitor technology passes electrical currents through organic carbon-based molecular films to emit its own light without requiring a backlight?

  • A) CRT
  • B) LCD (Liquid Crystal Display)
  • C) OLED (Organic Light Emitting Diode)
  • D) Plasma
👉 Touch to Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: C) OLED (Organic Light Emitting Diode)

Explanation: OLED pixels are emissive, generating their own individual light when electrified. This allows per-pixel dimming and true black levels because inactive pixels turn off completely.

13. Which impact printer strikes individual raised characters embossed on the petals of a rotating plastic or metal disc against an inked ribbon?

  • A) Daisy Wheel Printer
  • B) Dot Matrix Printer
  • C) Line Printer
  • D) Inkjet Printer
👉 Touch to Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: A) Daisy Wheel Printer

Explanation: Daisy Wheel printers use a spinning wheel with molded characters at the ends of petals, delivering letter-quality typewritten output, but they cannot print graphical images.

14. What measurement unit quantifies the operational rotational speed of the magnetic platters inside a mechanical hard disk drive?

  • A) Hertz (Hz)
  • B) RPM (Revolutions Per Minute)
  • C) DPI
  • D) FLOPS
👉 Touch to Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: B) RPM (Revolutions Per Minute)

Explanation: Hard drive spindle motors spin platters at constant speeds, measured in RPM (typically 5400 RPM or 7200 RPM for desktops, and 10,000–15,000 RPM for enterprise servers).

15. What reversible, symmetrical 24-pin connector standard has become the universal connection for charging, video display, and high-speed data transfer?

  • A) USB Type-A
  • B) USB Type-B
  • C) USB Type-C
  • D) Mini-USB
👉 Touch to Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: C) USB Type-C

Explanation: USB Type-C features a flippable, reversible plug shape supporting USB 3.2/USB4 data transfers, USB Power Delivery charging, and video protocols like DisplayPort over Alternate Mode.

16. The physical socket on a desktop motherboard designed to seat and lock the central processing unit chip securely in place is the:

  • A) RAM Slot
  • B) CPU Socket (LGA / PGA)
  • C) PCI Slot
  • D) SATA Port
👉 Touch to Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: B) CPU Socket (LGA / PGA)

Explanation: CPU sockets use either Pin Grid Array (PGA, pins on CPU) or Land Grid Array (LGA, contact pins in motherboard socket) to form electrical contacts with the processor.

17. A passive metal cooling component with high surface area fins that dissipates thermal heat away from a CPU is known as a:

  • A) Thermal Sensor
  • B) Heat Sink
  • C) Capacitor
  • D) Choke
👉 Touch to Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: B) Heat Sink

Explanation: A heat sink is an aluminum or copper block with thin fins that draws heat away from the processor via thermal conduction, often assisted by a cooling fan.

18. What is the thin layer of thermally conductive paste applied between the CPU integrated heat spreader and the metal heatsink called?

  • A) Thermal Compound (Thermal Paste)
  • B) Liquid Solder
  • C) Dielectric Gel
  • D) Silicon Sealant
👉 Touch to Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: A) Thermal Compound (Thermal Paste)

Explanation: Thermal paste fills microscopic air pockets between the processor lid and the heatsink base, maximizing conductive heat transfer.

19. Software distributed freely without monetary cost but containing proprietary closed-source code that cannot be legally modified is:

  • A) Open Source Software
  • B) Freeware
  • C) Public Domain Software
  • D) Shareware
👉 Touch to Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: B) Freeware

Explanation: Freeware (e.g., Adobe Acrobat Reader) costs nothing to use, but its authors retain copyright, and the underlying source code remains closed to the public.

20. What software tool converts human-written source code into machine language line by line, executing each statement immediately as it translates?

👉 Touch to Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: B) Interpreter

Explanation: Interpreters (used by Python, JavaScript, and Ruby) evaluate and execute code line by line at runtime, without generating an intermediate standalone machine-code binary.

21. What is the main structural text layer of an operating system that accepts typed user commands, interprets them, and passes them to the kernel?

  • A) Shell
  • B) BIOS
  • C) Device Driver
  • D) Firmware
👉 Touch to Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: A) Shell

Explanation: The Shell (such as Bash in Linux or Command Prompt in Windows) is the command interpreter layer wrapping around the internal OS kernel, exposing an interface to users.

22. A Real-Time Operating System (RTOS) is engineered primarily to fulfill which operational requirement?

  • A) Maximizing visual interface animations
  • B) Processing inputs and guaranteeing response within strict, predictable time limits
  • C) Storing large volumes of video files
  • D) Running office spreadsheet suites
👉 Touch to Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: B) Processing inputs and guaranteeing response within strict, predictable time limits

Explanation: An RTOS (used in aircraft navigation, robotics, and medical devices) prioritizes deterministic responsiveness, guaranteeing critical tasks execute within strict deadlines.

23. What is the low-power system state where RAM remains powered to preserve running applications while processors and drives shut down called?

  • A) Hibernation
  • B) Sleep Mode (Standby)
  • C) Cold Boot
  • D) Safe Mode
👉 Touch to Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: B) Sleep Mode (Standby)

Explanation: Sleep mode keeps RAM refreshed using minimal power while powering down display and storage drives, allowing the computer to wake back up almost instantly.

24. What minimal diagnostic boot mode in Microsoft Windows loads only essential drivers and services to help troubleshoot system crashes?

  • A) Normal Mode
  • B) Safe Mode
  • C) BIOS Setup
  • D) Recovery Console
👉 Touch to Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: B) Safe Mode

Explanation: Safe Mode starts Windows with basic generic video drivers, no third-party startup software, and minimal background services to help isolate malware and driver conflicts.

25. In Windows File Explorer, what shortcut combination creates a new folder in the active directory?

👉 Touch to Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: B) Ctrl + Shift + N

Explanation: Pressing Ctrl + Shift + N in File Explorer creates a 'New folder' immediately, ready for the user to type a custom folder name.

26. What standard shortcut key combination pastes the current contents of the system clipboard into the active document?

  • A) Ctrl + P
  • B) Ctrl + V
  • C) Ctrl + C
  • D) Ctrl + X
👉 Touch to Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: B) Ctrl + V

Explanation: Ctrl + V pastes clipboard data. Ctrl + C copies selected items, Ctrl + X cuts them, and Ctrl + P opens the Print dialog.

27. What happens when you select a paragraph of text in Microsoft Word and press the shortcut 'Ctrl + B'?

  • A) It applies Bottom Border
  • B) It toggles Bold formatting on the selected text
  • C) It changes background color
  • D) It inserts a Bullet Point
👉 Touch to Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: B) It toggles Bold formatting on the selected text

Explanation: Ctrl + B toggles bold styling. Ctrl + I applies italics, and Ctrl + U applies an underline to the selected text.

28. In Microsoft Word, what is the line spacing value applied when selecting the 'Single' line spacing preset?

  • A) 1.0
  • B) 1.15
  • C) 1.5
  • D) 2.0
👉 Touch to Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: A) 1.0

Explanation: Single line spacing corresponds to a multiplier of 1.0 (shortcut: Ctrl + 1). Double line spacing is 2.0 (shortcut: Ctrl + 2), and 1.5 line spacing uses Ctrl + 5.

29. What is the faint text or image printed behind the main body text across document pages (such as 'CONFIDENTIAL' or 'DRAFT') called?

  • A) Footer
  • B) Watermark
  • C) Margin Marker
  • D) Callout
👉 Touch to Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: B) Watermark

Explanation: A watermark is a semi-transparent background graphic or text string applied across pages to denote document status or maintain copyright protection.

30. What is the primary software application in the Microsoft Office suite used specifically for creating relational databases and data entry forms?

  • A) MS Publisher
  • B) MS Access
  • C) MS Outlook
  • D) MS Visio
👉 Touch to Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: B) MS Access

Explanation: Microsoft Access is a relational database management tool that combines the Jet Database Engine with GUI form builders, query tools, and report generators.

31. What is the name of the rectangular text box located above the worksheet grid in Excel that displays the active cell's coordinate reference (e.g., C5)?

  • A) Formula Bar
  • B) Name Box
  • C) Status Bar
  • D) Title Bar
👉 Touch to Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: B) Name Box

Explanation: The Name Box displays the active cell address or defined range name to the left of the Formula Bar, and can be used to jump directly to any cell.

32. In Microsoft Excel, what built-in statistical function calculates the arithmetic mean of a selected numerical cell range?

  • A) MEAN()
  • B) AVERAGE()
  • C) MEDIAN()
  • D) MODE()
👉 Touch to Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: B) AVERAGE()

Explanation: The =AVERAGE(range) function calculates the mathematical mean of numerical values in the range, automatically ignoring blank cells.

33. What feature in Microsoft Excel freezes selected top rows or left columns on screen so they remain visible while scrolling through large tables?

  • A) Split Window
  • B) Freeze Panes
  • C) AutoFilter
  • D) Conditional Lock
👉 Touch to Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: B) Freeze Panes

Explanation: Freeze Panes (found under the View tab) locks headers and reference labels in place so they remain visible when scrolling deep into large worksheets.

34. What file extension is assigned to an automated, self-running PowerPoint slide show that opens directly in presentation mode when double-clicked?

  • A) .pptx
  • B) .ppsx
  • C) .potx
  • D) .pptm
👉 Touch to Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: B) .ppsx

Explanation: While .pptx opens in the standard PowerPoint editor view, .ppsx (PowerPoint Show) launches straight into full-screen presentation mode.

35. In computer networks, what is the term for the maximum amount of data that can be transmitted across a communication path in a given period?

  • A) Latency
  • B) Bandwidth
  • C) Jitter
  • D) Attenuation
👉 Touch to Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: B) Bandwidth

Explanation: Bandwidth measures the data transfer capacity of a network link, usually expressed in bits per second (bps, Mbps, or Gbps). Latency refers to the round-trip delay time.

36. What physical transmission media attenuation problem describes the gradual loss of signal strength as an electrical wave travels over long distances of wire?

  • A) Crosstalk
  • B) Attenuation
  • C) Reflection
  • D) Collision
👉 Touch to Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: B) Attenuation

Explanation: Attenuation is the natural loss of electrical or optical signal energy as it travels along a transmission line, requiring repeaters to boost signal strength over distance.

37. What type of signal interference occurs when magnetic fields generated by one wire bleed into and disrupt the signal in an adjacent parallel wire?

  • A) Jitter
  • B) Crosstalk (EMI)
  • C) Paging
  • D) Throttling
👉 Touch to Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: B) Crosstalk (EMI)

Explanation: Crosstalk is electromagnetic electromagnetic coupling between adjacent wire pairs. Twisting pairs of wires (as in UTP cables) cancels out mutual electromagnetic interference.

38. What is the hardware address assigned to a wireless network access point, broadcast to allow client devices to discover the Wi-Fi network name?

  • A) IP Address
  • B) SSID (Service Set Identifier)
  • C) Subnet Mask
  • D) Gateway
👉 Touch to Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: B) SSID (Service Set Identifier)

Explanation: The SSID is the human-readable network name broadcast by wireless access points to identify a Wi-Fi network to nearby connecting devices.

39. Which network topology connects nodes sequentially along a closed circular data path where tokens circulate unidirectionally to control transmission?

  • A) Bus Topology
  • B) Star Topology
  • C) Ring Topology
  • D) Tree Topology
👉 Touch to Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: C) Ring Topology

Explanation: In a Ring topology, each node connects to two neighbors in a loop. Data packets and tokens travel sequentially in one direction around the ring from station to station.

40. What layer of the 7-layer OSI model defines the electrical, mechanical, and physical signaling interfaces (cables, connectors, voltages)?

  • A) Data Link Layer
  • B) Physical Layer (Layer 1)
  • C) Network Layer
  • D) Session Layer
👉 Touch to Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: B) Physical Layer (Layer 1)

Explanation: The Physical Layer handles transmitting raw, unstructured bit streams over physical hardware mediums, defining pinouts, cable specs, radio frequencies, and line voltages.

41. In the OSI reference model, which layer establishes, manages, synchronizes, and terminates communication dialogues between applications?

  • A) Transport Layer
  • B) Session Layer (Layer 5)
  • C) Presentation Layer
  • D) Network Layer
👉 Touch to Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: B) Session Layer (Layer 5)

Explanation: The Session Layer manages communication sessions, coordinating authentication, checkpointing, and ongoing data exchanges between remote applications.

42. What standard networking protocol translates logical hostnames into numerical IP addresses across the global Internet?

  • A) DHCP
  • B) DNS (Domain Name System)
  • C) SNMP
  • D) NTP
👉 Touch to Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: B) DNS (Domain Name System)

Explanation: The Domain Name System (DNS) translates human-friendly domain names (e.g., www.example.com) into machine-routable IP addresses (e.g., 93.184.216.34).

43. What default network port number is used for encrypted web communications using HTTPS?

  • A) Port 21
  • B) Port 25
  • C) Port 80
  • D) Port 443
👉 Touch to Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: D) Port 443

Explanation: Port 443 is the standard port for HTTPS traffic encrypted with TLS/SSL. Port 80 handles plain HTTP, Port 21 handles FTP, and Port 25 handles SMTP.

44. What technology creates an encrypted, secure tunnel over the public Internet to protect private corporate or personal data traffic?

  • A) VLAN
  • B) VPN (Virtual Private Network)
  • C) WAN
  • D) NAT
👉 Touch to Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: B) VPN (Virtual Private Network)

Explanation: A Virtual Private Network (VPN) encrypts outgoing traffic and routes it through an intermediary server, shielding private data across public networks.

45. What type of malware infects executable macros embedded in office documents, spreadsheets, and database templates?

  • A) Boot Sector Virus
  • B) Macro Virus
  • C) Worm
  • D) Trojan Horse
👉 Touch to Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: B) Macro Virus

Explanation: Macro viruses are written in application scripting languages like Visual Basic for Applications (VBA) and execute automatically when an infected document is opened.

46. What cyber attack technique exploits poor database input sanitation to run unauthorized SQL commands by injecting malicious code into form fields?

  • A) Cross-Site Scripting (XSS)
  • B) SQL Injection (SQLi)
  • C) Buffer Overflow
  • D) Phishing
👉 Touch to Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: B) SQL Injection (SQLi)

Explanation: SQL Injection occurs when user input fields lack proper sanitization, allowing attackers to inject raw database commands to view, delete, or manipulate backend records.

47. An attack where malicious JavaScript code is injected into a trusted website and executed inside other visitors' browsers is called:

  • A) SQL Injection
  • B) Cross-Site Scripting (XSS)
  • C) Man-in-the-Middle
  • D) Rootkit
👉 Touch to Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: B) Cross-Site Scripting (XSS)

Explanation: XSS attacks inject client-side scripts into viewed web pages, letting attackers bypass access controls, steal session cookies, or deface websites.

48. What form of social engineering tricks victims by sending deceptive mobile text messages (SMS) containing malicious links or requests for credentials?

  • A) Vishing
  • B) Smishing (SMS Phishing)
  • C) Pharming
  • D) Spooling
👉 Touch to Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: B) Smishing (SMS Phishing)

Explanation: Smishing combines 'SMS' and 'phishing', using fraudulent text messages about fake deliveries or bank alerts to coax victims into clicking malicious links.

49. What symmetrical cryptographic cipher standard adopted by the US NIST in 2001 uses 128, 192, or 256-bit keys for electronic data encryption?

  • A) DES
  • B) AES (Advanced Encryption Standard)
  • C) RSA
  • D) MD5
👉 Touch to Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: B) AES (Advanced Encryption Standard)

Explanation: AES (based on the Rijndael cipher) is the worldwide standard symmetric block cipher, replacing legacy DES with strong encryption using 128-, 192-, or 256-bit keys.

50. In relational database terminology, what is a single horizontal row containing data for a specific individual entity called?

  • A) Attribute
  • B) Tuple (or Record)
  • C) Domain
  • D) Relation
👉 Touch to Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: B) Tuple (or Record)

Explanation: In relational database models, a horizontal row is called a Tuple (or Record), vertical columns are called Attributes (or Fields), and the table is termed a Relation.

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