1. Who developed the High-Level programming language 'C' at Bell Laboratories in 1972?
- A) Dennis Ritchie
- B) Ken Thompson
- C) Bjarne Stroustrup
- D) James Gosling
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Correct Answer: A) Dennis Ritchie
Explanation: Dennis Ritchie created the C programming language at Bell Labs between 1969 and 1973 to re-implement the Unix operating system. Bjarne Stroustrup created C++, and James Gosling developed Java.
2. What was the world's first single-chip commercial microprocessor, released by Intel in 1971?
- A) Intel 8080
- B) Intel 4004
- C) Intel 8086
- D) Intel Pentium
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Correct Answer: B) Intel 4004
Explanation: The Intel 4004 was a 4-bit central processing unit (CPU) designed by Federico Faggin and Ted Hoff. It was the first commercially produced monolithic microprocessor integrated onto a single chip.
3. Which company designed and manufactured the first widely adopted commercial Graphical User Interface (GUI) computer mouse in 1984?
- A) IBM
- B) Apple (Macintosh)
- C) Microsoft
- D) Commodore
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Correct Answer: B) Apple (Macintosh)
Explanation: While Douglas Engelbart invented the computer mouse and Xerox PARC pioneered GUI research, Apple popularized both commercially with the release of the Macintosh in 1984.
4. What is the smallest physical unit of color on a display screen that can be individually addressed and controlled?
- A) Dot pitch
- B) Pixel
- C) Bit
- D) Lumens
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Correct Answer: B) Pixel
Explanation: A pixel (short for 'picture element') is the smallest controllable illuminated element on a digital display screen, composed of red, green, and blue (RGB) sub-pixels.
5. Keys on a keyboard such as Caps Lock, Num Lock, and Scroll Lock that alternate between two active states when pressed are called:
- A) Modifier Keys
- B) Toggle Keys
- C) Function Keys
- D) Navigation Keys
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Correct Answer: B) Toggle Keys
Explanation: Toggle keys alternate between an ON and OFF function with each press (e.g., Caps Lock switches between uppercase and lowercase). Keys like Shift, Ctrl, and Alt are Modifier keys.
6. Which keys on a standard keyboard are combined with other keys to perform shortcuts or modify regular keystroke actions (e.g., Ctrl, Alt, Shift)?
- A) Numeric Keys
- B) Modifier Keys
- C) Punctuation Keys
- D) Alphanumeric Keys
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Correct Answer: B) Modifier Keys
Explanation: Modifier keys (Shift, Control, Alt, Command) alter the standard input of other pressed keys when held down simultaneously (such as pressing Ctrl + C to copy).
7. How many functional 'F' keys are present in the top row of a standard full-sized computer keyboard?
- A) 10
- B) 12
- C) 14
- D) 16
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Correct Answer: B) 12
Explanation: Standard IBM-compatible enhanced 101/104-key desktop keyboards feature 12 function keys numbered sequentially from F1 through F12.
8. What is the storage capacity of a standard 3.5-inch High-Density (HD) Floppy Diskette?
- A) 1.2 MB
- B) 1.44 MB
- C) 2.88 MB
- D) 720 KB
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Correct Answer: B) 1.44 MB
Explanation: The standard 3.5-inch micro-floppy disk introduced in the late 1980s stored exactly 1.44 MB of formatted binary data across 80 concentric tracks on two magnetic recording surfaces.
9. What optical storage technology uses a violet-blue laser to achieve massive data density of 25 GB to 50 GB per disc?
- A) Compact Disc (CD)
- B) Digital Versatile Disc (DVD)
- C) Blu-ray Disc (BD)
- D) LaserDisc
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Correct Answer: C) Blu-ray Disc (BD)
Explanation: Blu-ray discs use a shorter-wavelength 405 nm blue-violet laser instead of the 650 nm red laser used in standard DVDs, allowing tighter optical pits and storing 25 GB per single layer.
10. In the magnetic disk architecture of a hard drive, a set of corresponding aligned tracks across all stacked physical platters is known as a:
- A) Sector
- B) Cluster
- C) Cylinder
- D) Block
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Correct Answer: C) Cylinder
Explanation: A cylinder consists of all the circular tracks at the same radial distance across all parallel platter surfaces that can be accessed simultaneously by the multi-head read/write assembly without moving the actuator arm.
11. What is the smallest logical allocation unit of disk space that a file system (such as NTFS or FAT32) can assign to hold a file?
- A) Track
- B) Sector
- C) Cluster (Allocation Unit)
- D) Cylinder
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Correct Answer: C) Cluster (Allocation Unit)
Explanation: A sector (typically 512 bytes or 4 KB) is the smallest physical unit, but a Cluster (a group of one or more continuous sectors) is the smallest logical block the operating system can address to store file data.
12. What is the time taken by a hard disk drive's mechanical read/write head to move to the specified track containing desired data called?
- A) Rotational Latency
- B) Seek Time
- C) Transfer Rate
- D) Cycle Time
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Correct Answer: B) Seek Time
Explanation: Seek time is the physical duration required for the drive's actuator arm to reposition the read/write heads over the correct track. Rotational latency is the delay waiting for the specific sector to spin beneath the head.
13. Which interface bus allows peripheral devices (like sound cards or network adapters) to transfer data directly to system RAM without burdening the CPU?
- A) Direct Memory Access (DMA)
- B) Programmed I/O (PIO)
- C) Polling
- D) Interrupt Register
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Correct Answer: A) Direct Memory Access (DMA)
Explanation: DMA enables dedicated hardware controllers to transfer data blocks directly between memory buffers and high-speed I/O devices without continuous CPU intervention, freeing processor cycles.
14. What is the primary legacy expansion slot standard on older motherboards used to attach expansion cards before PCI Express (PCIe) took over?
- A) PCI (Peripheral Component Interconnect)
- B) AGP only
- C) SCSI
- D) SATA
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Correct Answer: A) PCI (Peripheral Component Interconnect)
Explanation: PCI was introduced by Intel in 1992 as a 32-bit/64-bit parallel bus interface for network cards, modems, and sound cards. Modern systems have replaced standard PCI with point-to-point serial PCI Express (PCIe).
15. What internal computer expansion bus connects modern storage drives (HDDs, SSDs, optical drives) directly to the motherboard via narrow, high-speed serial cables?
- A) PATA (IDE)
- B) SATA (Serial Advanced Technology Attachment)
- C) RS-232
- D) IEEE 1284
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Correct Answer: B) SATA (Serial Advanced Technology Attachment)
Explanation: SATA replaced wide parallel PATA/IDE ribbon cables with 7-pin high-speed serial interfaces providing data transfer rates of up to 6 Gbps (SATA Revision 3.0).
16. What physical port on older computers was known as the 'Centronics' or LPT port, commonly used to connect legacy dot-matrix and laser printers?
- A) Serial Port (COM)
- B) Parallel Port (DB-25)
- C) PS/2 Port
- D) VGA Port
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Correct Answer: B) Parallel Port (DB-25)
Explanation: The 25-pin Parallel Printer Port (LPT, IEEE 1284) transmitted 8 bits of data in parallel simultaneously over 8 conductor lines, before being superseded by Universal Serial Bus (USB).
17. A hardware signal sent by an external input/output device to the CPU requesting immediate processor attention and interrupting ongoing execution is a:
- A) System Trap
- B) Hardware Interrupt (IRQ)
- C) Thread Context
- D) Deadlock signal
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Correct Answer: B) Hardware Interrupt (IRQ)
Explanation: An Interrupt Request (IRQ) alerts the CPU to pause its current execution pipeline and immediately branch to an Interrupt Service Routine (ISR) to handle events like keyboard strokes or mouse movements.
18. What is the term for a software program that automatically executes upon receiving an unexpected error, exception, or hardware interrupt signal?
- A) Bootloader
- B) Interrupt Handler (ISR)
- C) Assembler
- D) Disk Defragmenter
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Correct Answer: B) Interrupt Handler (ISR)
Explanation: An Interrupt Service Routine (ISR) or interrupt handler is an operating system callback function executed immediately when a corresponding hardware or software interrupt occurs.
19. The process of dividing physical computer memory into fixed-size continuous blocks of memory during virtual memory allocation is known as:
- A) Segmentation
- B) Paging
- C) Clustering
- D) Partitioning
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Correct Answer: B) Paging
Explanation: Paging divides virtual memory into fixed-sized blocks called 'Pages' (commonly 4 KB) and physical memory into corresponding blocks called 'Frames', managed by the Memory Management Unit (MMU).
20. What occurs in virtual memory management when a running application tries to access an address in a page not currently resident in physical RAM?
- A) Cache Hit
- B) Page Fault
- C) Buffer Overflow
- D) Memory Leak
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Correct Answer: B) Page Fault
Explanation: A Page Fault is a hardware trap raised by the MMU when a program accesses a virtual page that has been swapped out to disk, prompting the OS to read the page back into an available RAM frame.
21. In Microsoft Windows, what is the default Command-Line tool used to scan, verify, and repair file system errors and bad disk sectors on a hard drive?
- A) format
- B) chkdsk
- C) sfc /scannow
- D) diskpart
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Correct Answer: B) chkdsk
Explanation: The chkdsk (Check Disk) command scans the file system integrity on a disk volume, repairs logical metadata errors, and marks physically damaged bad sectors so they are not used.
22. What Windows utility command is run from the Run dialog box (Win + R) to open the Microsoft System Configuration manager for managing startup apps and boot options?
- A) regedit
- B) msconfig
- C) dxdiag
- D) cmd
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Correct Answer: B) msconfig
Explanation: Typing msconfig opens the System Configuration window to configure boot parameters, toggle background services, and isolate boot issues.
23. What is the hierarchical central configuration database in Microsoft Windows that stores low-level settings for the OS, hardware drivers, and installed software?
- A) Windows Kernel
- B) Windows Registry
- C) BIOS Cache
- D) Control Panel
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Correct Answer: B) Windows Registry
Explanation: The Windows Registry (viewed and edited via regedit) contains system-wide configuration keys and values organized under hives like HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE and HKEY_CURRENT_USER.
24. In Microsoft Windows, which keyboard shortcut combination minimizes all open application windows and displays the Desktop immediately?
- A) Windows Key + E
- B) Windows Key + D
- C) Windows Key + R
- D) Windows Key + Tab
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Correct Answer: B) Windows Key + D
Explanation: Pressing Windows Key + D toggles displaying the Desktop (minimizing all windows, and pressing it again restores them). Windows Key + M also minimizes all open windows.
25. Which shortcut key combination captures a screenshot of only the currently active window and copies it to the clipboard in Microsoft Windows?
- A) Print Screen (PrtScn)
- B) Alt + Print Screen
- C) Ctrl + Print Screen
- D) Shift + Print Screen
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Correct Answer: B) Alt + Print Screen
Explanation: Pressing 'PrtScn' captures the entire desktop screen, whereas pressing 'Alt + PrtScn' captures only the active foreground window boundary directly to the clipboard.
26. In Microsoft Word, what formatting mark is inserted to start typing on a fresh page without filling the current page with blank enter lines?
- A) Line Break (Shift + Enter)
- B) Page Break (Ctrl + Enter)
- C) Section Break
- D) Column Break
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Correct Answer: B) Page Break (Ctrl + Enter)
Explanation: Pressing Ctrl + Enter inserts a manual Page Break, moving the insertion cursor to the top of the next page regardless of the text on the current page.
27. What is the extra margin space added to the binding side of a document page in Microsoft Word to prevent text from being hidden during binding called?
- A) Header Margin
- B) Gutter Margin
- C) Footnote Margin
- D) Indentation Margin
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Correct Answer: B) Gutter Margin
Explanation: A Gutter Margin adds extra spacing to the side or top margin of a document intended for bookbinding or spiral binding, ensuring printed text remains visible after binding.
28. Which typographical feature in Microsoft Word enlarges the first letter of a paragraph to span across several lines of text below it?
- A) WordArt
- B) Drop Cap
- C) Subscript
- D) Superscript
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Correct Answer: B) Drop Cap
Explanation: A Drop Cap creates a decorative initial capital letter that drops down several lines into the text block, commonly seen in newspapers, magazines, and published books.
29. What character format reduces font size and positions text slightly below the standard baseline?
- A) Superscript
- B) Subscript
- C) Strikethrough
- D) Small Caps
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Correct Answer: B) Subscript
Explanation: Subscript (shortcut: Ctrl + =) places smaller text below the baseline (e.g., chemical formulas like $\text{CO}_2$). Superscript (shortcut: Ctrl + Shift + +) positions text above the baseline (e.g., mathematical exponents like $x^2$).
30. In Microsoft Excel, what is the default text alignment and default numeric alignment inside a worksheet cell?
- A) Text is Left-aligned; Numbers are Right-aligned
- B) Text is Right-aligned; Numbers are Left-aligned
- C) Both Text and Numbers are Centered
- D) Both Text and Numbers are Left-aligned
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Correct Answer: A) Text is Left-aligned; Numbers are Right-aligned
Explanation: By default in Excel, string labels (text) automatically align to the left margin of a cell, while numerical values, dates, and calculated currency align to the right margin.
31. What formula error code appears in an Excel cell when a formula attempts to divide a numeric value by zero or by an empty cell?
- A) #NULL!
- B) #DIV/0!
- C) #N/A
- D) #NUM!
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Correct Answer: B) #DIV/0!
Explanation: The #DIV/0! error indicates that an equation contains an invalid mathematical division where the denominator evaluates to zero or references a blank cell.
32. In Microsoft Excel, which lookup function searches vertically down the first column of a table array and retrieves data from a specified column in that row?
- A) HLOOKUP
- B) VLOOKUP
- C) MATCH
- D) INDEX
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Correct Answer: B) VLOOKUP
Explanation: VLOOKUP (Vertical Lookup) searches down the first column of a range for a key value and returns corresponding data from another column in the same row. HLOOKUP searches horizontally across rows.
33. What is the default file format for saving an automated, macro-enabled workbook in Microsoft Excel?
- A) .xlsx
- B) .xlsm
- C) .xlsb
- D) .xltx
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Correct Answer: B) .xlsm
Explanation: For security reasons against macro viruses, standard .xlsx files cannot store VBA code. Macro-enabled workbooks containing Visual Basic code must be saved with the .xlsm extension.
34. In Microsoft PowerPoint, which view displays miniaturized tile versions of all presentation slides on a single screen to easily rearrange slide order?
- A) Slide Show View
- B) Slide Sorter View
- C) Reading View
- D) Outline View
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Correct Answer: B) Slide Sorter View
Explanation: Slide Sorter View presents a grid of thumbnail slides, making it easy to drag-and-drop, delete, reorder, and apply transition timings across multiple slides.
35. Which physical transmission medium consists of a central copper core conductor surrounded by an insulating layer, braided metal shielding, and an outer protective jacket?
- A) Twisted Pair Cable
- B) Coaxial Cable
- C) Fiber-Optic Cable
- D) Ribbon Cable
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Correct Answer: B) Coaxial Cable
Explanation: Coaxial cable (Coax) features a central solid copper wire enclosed by dielectric insulation, an electromagnetic wire braid shield, and an outer jacket, widely used in cable television systems.
36. What physical transmission medium carries data as pulses of light through thin strands of ultra-pure silica glass or plastic using total internal reflection?
- A) Coaxial Cable
- B) Fiber-Optic Cable
- C) Shielded Twisted Pair (STP)
- D) Unshielded Twisted Pair (UTP)
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Correct Answer: B) Fiber-Optic Cable
Explanation: Fiber-optic cables transmit modulated light pulses through a glass core via total internal reflection, providing high bandwidth over long distances with immunity to electromagnetic interference (EMI).
37. What is the standard modular plastic connector clip attached to the ends of 8-conductor Category 5/6 (Cat5e/Cat6) Ethernet networking cables called?
- A) RJ-11
- B) RJ-45
- C) BNC
- D) USB-C
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Correct Answer: B) RJ-45
Explanation: RJ-45 (Registered Jack 45) is an 8-pin modular connector used for terminating twisted-pair Ethernet cables. RJ-11 is a smaller 4-pin connector used for telephone wiring.
38. In computer networks, what device operates at Layer 2 (Data Link Layer) to connect devices within a LAN and selectively forward frames based on hardware MAC addresses?
- A) Repeater
- B) Network Switch
- C) Hub
- D) Modem
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Correct Answer: B) Network Switch
Explanation: An intelligent network switch inspects incoming Ethernet frame headers, builds an internal MAC address table, and forwards data packets directly to the destination port, avoiding collisions.
39. Which legacy networking device broadcasts all incoming electrical data signals out to every connected port indiscriminately, causing high network traffic and collisions?
- A) Network Hub
- B) Network Switch
- C) Router
- D) Gateway
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Correct Answer: A) Network Hub
Explanation: A Hub operates as a multiport repeater at Layer 1 of the OSI model; it does not read data packets and broadcasts all received signals to every connected node, creating a shared collision domain.
40. What hardware device modulates digital computer binary data into analog audio signals for telephone line transmission, and demodulates received signals back to digital?
- A) Switch
- B) Modem
- C) Multiplexer
- D) Bridge
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Correct Answer: B) Modem
Explanation: A Modem (Modulator-Demodulator) converts outgoing digital computer pulses into analog waves to travel over copper telephone cables, and translates incoming analog signals back into digital data.
41. What short-range wireless communication standard operates on the 2.4 GHz ISM radio band to connect peripherals (keyboards, headsets) over distances up to 10 meters?
- A) Wi-Fi
- B) Bluetooth (IEEE 802.15.1)
- C) Infrared
- D) NFC
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Correct Answer: B) Bluetooth (IEEE 802.15.1)
Explanation: Bluetooth is a short-range Wireless Personal Area Network (WPAN) protocol designed for low-power direct connections between mobile phones, audio devices, and computer peripherals.
42. What standard networking protocol is used by web clients and web servers to transfer hypertext markup documents and media on the World Wide Web?
- A) FTP
- B) HTTP (HyperText Transfer Protocol)
- C) SMTP
- D) SNMP
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Correct Answer: B) HTTP (HyperText Transfer Protocol)
Explanation: HTTP is an Application Layer request-response protocol designed to fetch HTML web resources, stylesheets, and embedded media assets from web servers to client web browsers.
43. In network security, what is a dedicated, isolated computer system configured to look like an attractive target to trap, detect, and study hacker intrusion attempts called?
- A) Proxy Server
- B) Honeypot
- C) Bastion Host
- D) DMZ Node
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Correct Answer: B) Honeypot
Explanation: A Honeypot is a decoy server deployed within a network to lure cyber attackers, allowing security administrators to observe exploit methods and trace unauthorized access without compromising production data.
44. What type of malicious logic bomb lies dormant until a specific real-world calendar date, time, or trigger condition occurs, and then executes its destructive payload?
- A) Time Bomb
- B) Macro Virus
- C) Worm
- D) Spyware
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Correct Answer: A) Time Bomb
Explanation: A Time Bomb is a type of computer logic bomb embedded in software that waits silently until a specified system clock timestamp or condition is met before executing malicious routines (e.g., deleting records).
45. A cyberattack where an unauthorized third party secretly intercepts, relays, and alters communication between two legitimate communicating parties is a:
- A) Denial of Service (DoS)
- B) Man-in-the-Middle (MitM) Attack
- C) Brute Force Attack
- D) Cross-Site Scripting (XSS)
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Correct Answer: B) Man-in-the-Middle (MitM) Attack
Explanation: In a Man-in-the-Middle (MitM) attack, the attacker intercepts data passing between a client and server (often over unencrypted Wi-Fi), capturing sensitive session tokens and credentials while appearing transparent.
46. An automated trial-and-error password cracking technique that systematically attempts every possible alphanumeric combination until finding the correct password is a:
- A) Phishing Attack
- B) Brute Force Attack
- C) Spoofing Attack
- D) Man-in-the-Middle Attack
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Correct Answer: B) Brute Force Attack
Explanation: A Brute Force attack uses automated scripts to cycle through every permutation of letters, numbers, and symbols until the correct password matches, countered by account lockout policies.
47. An attack technique that tests a pre-compiled list of thousands of commonly used words and leaked passwords against a user account is called a:
- A) Dictionary Attack
- B) Trojan Attack
- C) DNS Poisoning
- D) Buffer Overflow
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Correct Answer: A) Dictionary Attack
Explanation: A Dictionary Attack automates password attempts using lists of real dictionary words, common substitutions, and previously leaked credentials, succeeding against simple passwords.
48. What is an ethical hacker who uses cybersecurity skills to identify vulnerabilities in computer systems with permission to help improve security called?
- A) Black Hat Hacker
- B) White Hat Hacker
- C) Grey Hat Hacker
- D) Script Kiddie
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Correct Answer: B) White Hat Hacker
Explanation: White Hat hackers are certified security specialists who perform penetration testing and vulnerability assessments with explicit authorization to strengthen defense systems. Black Hat hackers break into systems illegally.
49. What does the computing acronym 'DBMS' stand for in relational and structured data storage?
- A) Digital Binary Memory System
- B) Database Management System
- C) Direct Bus Motherboard Slot
- D) Data Backup Modular Software
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Correct Answer: B) Database Management System
Explanation: A Database Management System (DBMS) is software (like Oracle, MySQL, Microsoft SQL Server) that facilitates creating, reading, updating, querying, and administering structured records.
50. In relational database design (RDBMS), what attribute uniquely identifies each individual record or row within a database table?
- A) Foreign Key
- B) Primary Key
- C) Secondary Index
- D) Candidate Column
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Correct Answer: B) Primary Key
Explanation: A Primary Key is a database constraint that enforces entity integrity: it must contain unique values for every row in the table and cannot contain null (empty) values (e.g., Student ID or Aadhaar Number).