Target: OAVS TGT Science (CBZ) | Chemistry, Biology & Science Pedagogy
1. (OAVS TGT PYQ) An aqueous solution of a salt turns blue litmus red and produces effervescence with sodium carbonate. The salt is most likely formed by the reaction of:
- A) Strong acid and strong base
- B) Strong acid and weak base
- C) Weak acid and strong base
- D) Weak acid and weak base
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Correct Answer: B) Strong acid and weak base
Explanation: Salts of a strong acid and a weak base (such as ammonium chloride, NH4Cl) undergo cationic hydrolysis in water, producing excess hydronium ions (H3O+). This makes the solution acidic (pH < 7), which turns blue litmus red and reacts with metal carbonates to liberate CO2 gas.
2. (OAVS TGT Mock) Which of the following statements about the modern periodic table trends is INCORRECT?
- A) Electronegativity increases across a period from left to right
- B) Atomic radius decreases across a period from left to right
- C) Metallic character increases down a group
- D) Ionization enthalpy decreases across a period from left to right
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Correct Answer: D) Ionization enthalpy decreases across a period from left to right
Explanation: Moving across a period from left to right, the effective nuclear charge increases while the atomic radius decreases. Consequently, valence electrons are held more firmly, and ionization enthalpy increases, not decreases.
3. (OAVS TGT PYQ) In the industrial Chlor-alkali process for the electrolysis of aqueous sodium chloride (brine), which products are formed at the anode and cathode respectively?
- A) H2 gas at anode, Cl2 gas at cathode
- B) Cl2 gas at anode, H2 gas at cathode
- C) O2 gas at anode, H2 gas at cathode
- D) Cl2 gas at anode, Na metal at cathode
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Correct Answer: B) Cl2 gas at anode, H2 gas at cathode
Explanation: During the electrolysis of concentrated NaCl solution (brine): Chlorine ions are oxidized at the anode (2Cl- ➔ Cl2 + 2e-), water is reduced at the cathode to produce hydrogen gas (2H2O + 2e- ➔ H2 + 2OH-), and sodium hydroxide (NaOH) remains in solution.
4. (OAVS TGT Mock) The IUPAC name of the organic compound CH3-CH2-C(CH3)2-CH2-CH3 is:
- A) 3,3-dimethylpentane
- B) 2,2-diethylpropane
- C) 3-ethyl-3-methylbutane
- D) 2-ethyl-2-methylbutane
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Correct Answer: A) 3,3-dimethylpentane
Explanation: The longest continuous carbon chain has 5 carbon atoms (pentane). Numbering from either side places the two methyl substituents at carbon 3. Thus, the IUPAC name is 3,3-dimethylpentane.
5. (OAVS TGT PYQ) Which of the following metals is refined commercially using the method of liquation?
- A) Copper
- B) Tin
- C) Aluminium
- D) Iron
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Correct Answer: B) Tin
Explanation: Liquation is employed when the metal has a significantly lower melting point than its associated impurities (e.g., tin and lead). The impure metal is heated on a sloping hearth, allowing the molten metal to flow down while infusible solid dross remains behind.
6. (OAVS TGT Mock) What is the total number of sigma and pi bonds present in a molecule of ethyne (acetylene, C2H2)?
- A) 3 sigma bonds and 2 pi bonds
- B) 2 sigma bonds and 3 pi bonds
- C) 4 sigma bonds and 1 pi bond
- D) 5 sigma bonds and 0 pi bonds
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Correct Answer: A) 3 sigma bonds and 2 pi bonds
Explanation: The Lewis structure of ethyne is H-C≡C-H. Each single C-H bond is a sigma bond (2 sigma bonds), and the carbon-carbon triple bond contains 1 sigma bond and 2 pi bonds. Total = 3 sigma bonds and 2 pi bonds.
7. (OAVS TGT PYQ) Which of the following oxides produces an acidic solution when dissolved in water?
- A) Na2O
- B) CaO
- C) SO3
- D) MgO
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Correct Answer: C) SO3
Explanation: Metal oxides (Na2O, CaO, MgO) are basic in nature and produce alkaline hydroxides in water. Non-metal oxides like sulphur trioxide (SO3) are acidic anhydrides: SO3 + H2O ➔ H2SO4 (sulphuric acid).
8. (OAVS TGT Mock) Which compound is used as an antacid to neutralize excess gastric acid without altering systemic blood pH?
- A) NaOH
- B) Mg(OH)2
- C) Ca(OH)2
- D) KOH
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Correct Answer: B) Mg(OH)2
Explanation: Magnesium hydroxide, commonly termed 'Milk of Magnesia', is a mild, poorly soluble base that neutralizes excess stomach hydrochloric acid without causing systemic alkalosis.
9. (OAVS TGT PYQ) The functional group present in ethyl ethanoate (CH3COOC2H5) is:
- A) Ether
- B) Ester
- C) Ketone
- D) Carboxylic acid
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Correct Answer: B) Ester
Explanation: Ethyl ethanoate contains the ester linkage (-COO-) formed by condensing ethanoic acid and ethanol with the elimination of water.
10. (OAVS TGT Mock) In the extraction of aluminium by Hall-Heroult process, cryolite (Na3AlF6) and fluorspar (CaF2) are added to alumina (Al2O3) to:
- A) Act as reducing agents
- B) Lower the melting point of alumina and increase electrical conductivity
- C) Prevent the oxidation of the carbon anode
- D) Precipitate pure aluminium at the bottom
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Correct Answer: B) Lower the melting point of alumina and increase electrical conductivity
Explanation: Pure alumina melts at over 2050°C and is a poor electrical conductor. Adding cryolite and fluorspar reduces the operational melting point to approximately 950°C and supplies mobile ions that enhance conductivity.
11. (OAVS TGT Science PYQ) According to Mendeleev's periodic law, the properties of elements are a periodic function of their:
- A) Atomic masses
- B) Atomic numbers
- C) Valency electrons
- D) Densities
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Correct Answer: A) Atomic masses
Explanation: Dmitri Mendeleev organized his 1869 periodic table based on increasing atomic masses (atomic weights). Henry Moseley later revised this to atomic numbers in 1913.
12. (OAVS TGT Mock) Which gas is evolved when pure zinc granules are treated with a warm aqueous solution of sodium hydroxide?
- A) Oxygen
- B) Hydrogen
- C) Zinc vapour
- D) Carbon dioxide
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Correct Answer: B) Hydrogen
Explanation: Zinc is an amphoteric metal that reacts with strong alkalies to form sodium zincate and hydrogen gas: Zn(s) + 2NaOH(aq) ➔ Na2ZnO2(aq) + H2(g).
13. (OAVS TGT PYQ) How many water molecules are present as water of crystallization in one formula unit of green vitriol (ferrous sulphate)?
- A) 2
- B) 5
- C) 7
- D) 10
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Correct Answer: C) 7
Explanation: Green vitriol is ferrous sulphate heptahydrate, having the chemical formula FeSO4 · 7H2O.
14. (OAVS TGT Mock) Which pair of elements will form a compound with the most ionic character?
- A) Carbon and Oxygen
- B) Caesium and Fluorine
- C) Nitrogen and Chlorine
- D) Hydrogen and Sulphur
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Correct Answer: B) Caesium and Fluorine
Explanation: Ionic character increases with the electronegativity difference between the combining elements. Caesium has the lowest electronegativity (0.79) among stable metals, and Fluorine has the highest (3.98), making CsF the most ionic compound.
15. (OAVS TGT Science PYQ) Denatured alcohol is ethanol rendered unfit for human consumption by adding toxic adulterants such as:
- A) Glucose and starch
- B) Methanol and pyridine
- C) Acetic acid and sodium chloride
- D) Glycerol and water
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Correct Answer: B) Methanol and pyridine
Explanation: To prevent the misuse of industrial alcohol, ethanol is 'denatured' by adding poisonous methanol, foul-smelling pyridine, and copper sulphate dye.
16. (OAVS TGT Mock) What is the colour change observed when sulphur dioxide gas is bubbled through an acidified solution of potassium dichromate (K2Cr2O7)?
- A) Green to orange
- B) Orange to green
- C) Purple to colourless
- D) Colourless to yellow
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Correct Answer: B) Orange to green
Explanation: SO2 reduces orange dichromate ions [Cr2O7]2- to green chromium ions Cr3+: K2Cr2O7 + H2SO4 + 3SO2 ➔ K2SO4 + Cr2(SO4)3 (green) + H2O.
17. (OAVS TGT Science PYQ) In the blast furnace during iron extraction, limestone (CaCO3) is added to act as a flux. What slag is formed to remove silica impurities?
- A) Calcium silicate (CaSiO3)
- B) Iron silicate (FeSiO3)
- C) Calcium aluminate
- D) Calcium carbonate
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Correct Answer: A) Calcium silicate (CaSiO3)
Explanation: Limestone decomposes into calcium oxide: CaCO3 ➔ CaO + CO2. The basic flux CaO reacts with acidic silica gangue (SiO2) to form molten slag: CaO + SiO2 ➔ CaSiO3, which floats above the molten iron.
18. (OAVS TGT Mock) The compound formed when quicklime (CaO) reacts vigorously with water is:
- A) Limestone
- B) Slaked lime
- C) Gypsum
- D) Marble
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Correct Answer: B) Slaked lime
Explanation: Calcium oxide reacts exothermically with water to form calcium hydroxide: CaO(s) + H2O(l) ➔ Ca(OH)2(s) (slaked lime).
19. (OAVS TGT PYQ) Which of the following elements has the highest first ionization enthalpy?
- A) Nitrogen (N)
- B) Oxygen (O)
- C) Carbon (C)
- D) Boron (B)
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Correct Answer: A) Nitrogen (N)
Explanation: Nitrogen has an electronic configuration of 1s2 2s2 2p3 with an exactly half-filled, stable 2p subshell. As a result, removing an electron requires more energy than removing one from oxygen (2p4), where pairing increases repulsion.
20. (OAVS TGT Mock) What is the nature of the chemical bond in a nitrogen molecule (N2)?
- A) Single covalent bond
- B) Double covalent bond
- C) Triple covalent bond
- D) Electrovalent bond
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Correct Answer: C) Triple covalent bond
Explanation: Each nitrogen atom has 5 valence electrons and shares 3 pairs of electrons with another nitrogen atom (:N≡N:) to complete its octet, forming a triple covalent bond.
21. (OAVS TGT Science PYQ) Rancidity of fat- and oil-containing foods during prolonged storage is caused by:
- A) Aerobic reduction
- B) Aerial oxidation
- C) Hydrogenation
- D) Polymerization
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Correct Answer: B) Aerial oxidation
Explanation: Rancidity is the slow oxidation of unsaturated fatty acid chains in fats and oils by atmospheric oxygen, producing volatile aldehydes and carboxylic acids with an unpleasant smell and taste.
22. (OAVS TGT Mock) Which of the following pairs represents members of the same homologous series?
- A) CH4 and C2H4
- B) C2H5OH and CH3OCH3
- C) CH3OH and C2H5OH
- D) C2H2 and C2H6
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Correct Answer: C) CH3OH and C2H5OH
Explanation: Methanol (CH3OH) and Ethanol (C2H5OH) both belong to the alcohol homologous series (general formula CnH2n+1OH) and differ by a single -CH2- unit (14 unified mass units).
23. (OAVS TGT Science PYQ) The process of heating an ore in the absence of air below its melting point to remove volatile impurities and water of hydration is called:
- A) Roasting
- B) Calcination
- C) Smelting
- D) Leaching
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Correct Answer: B) Calcination
Explanation: Calcination is used primarily for carbonate and hydrated oxide ores, heating them in the absence or limited supply of air (e.g., ZnCO3 ➔ ZnO + CO2).
24. (OAVS TGT Mock) Which non-metal is a dark reddish-brown liquid at room temperature and standard atmospheric pressure?
- A) Iodine
- B) Bromine
- C) Chlorine
- D) Phosphorus
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Correct Answer: B) Bromine
Explanation: Bromine (Br2) is the only non-metallic element that exists as a liquid at room temperature. Mercury is the only liquid metallic element.
25. (OAVS TGT Science PYQ) When ethanoic acid reacts with absolute ethanol in the presence of concentrated H2SO4, the product formed has the fragrance of:
- A) Rotten eggs
- B) Pungent vinegar
- C) Sweet fruity aroma
- D) Bitter almonds
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Correct Answer: C) Sweet fruity aroma
Explanation: Esterification produces ethyl ethanoate (an ester), which is recognized by its pleasant, sweet fruity aroma.
26. (OAVS TGT Mock) In the periodic table, diagonal relationship is exhibited by which of the following element pairs?
- A) Lithium and Magnesium
- B) Sodium and Potassium
- C) Boron and Carbon
- D) Beryllium and Calcium
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Correct Answer: A) Lithium and Magnesium
Explanation: Light elements of Period 2 share similar ionic sizes and polarizing powers with the element to their lower right in Period 3. Lithium and Magnesium exhibit a well-defined diagonal relationship.
27. (OAVS TGT Science PYQ) What is the percentage of pure gold present in 18-carat gold jewellery?
- A) 18%
- B) 50%
- C) 75%
- D) 91.6%
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Correct Answer: C) 75%
Explanation: Pure gold is 24 carats (100%). In 18-carat gold, 18 parts out of 24 are pure gold: (18 / 24) * 100 = 75%.
28. (OAVS TGT Mock) Which of the following represents an endothermic process?
- A) Dissolution of quicklime in water
- B) Respiration in living cells
- C) Sublimation of dry ice (solid CO2)
- D) Combustion of LPG fuel
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Correct Answer: C) Sublimation of dry ice (solid CO2)
Explanation: Sublimation requires the absorption of heat from the surroundings to break intermolecular forces, making it an endothermic process. The other options are exothermic reactions that release heat.
29. (OAVS TGT Science PYQ) An element has electronic configuration 2, 8, 8, 2. To which group and period does it belong?
- A) Group 2, Period 4
- B) Group 4, Period 2
- C) Group 2, Period 3
- D) Group 12, Period 4
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Correct Answer: A) Group 2, Period 4
Explanation: Atomic number = 2 + 8 + 8 + 2 = 20 (Calcium). It has 4 electron shells, placing it in Period 4. Its 2 valence electrons place it in Group 2 (alkaline earth metals).
30. (OAVS TGT Mock) Soap micelles in aqueous solution clean greasy dirt because:
- A) The hydrophobic hydrocarbon tails dissolve in oil while the hydrophilic ionic heads face outward in water
- B) Both ends are hydrophilic and dissolve the oil
- C) The hydrophilic heads embed directly into the oil
- D) Soap dissolves water in the grease droplet
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Correct Answer: A) The hydrophobic hydrocarbon tails dissolve in oil while the hydrophilic ionic heads face outward in water
Explanation: Soap molecules form spherical micelles where the non-polar hydrophobic alkyl tails interact with the oil or grease droplet, and the charged hydrophilic carboxylate heads face the surrounding water, forming an emulsion that can be rinsed away.
31. (OAVS TGT Science PYQ) Which catalyst is commonly used in the industrial hydrogenation of vegetable oils to produce vanaspati ghee?
- A) Iron
- B) Nickel
- C) Platinum
- D) Vanadium pentoxide
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Correct Answer: B) Nickel
Explanation: Finely divided nickel (Ni) serves as a heterogeneous catalyst at around 473 K for the addition of hydrogen across the carbon-carbon double bonds of liquid vegetable oils.
32. (OAVS TGT Mock) What is the formal oxidation state of carbon in methane (CH4) and carbon dioxide (CO2) respectively?
- A) -4 and +4
- B) +4 and -4
- C) 0 and +4
- D) -2 and +2
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Correct Answer: A) -4 and +4
Explanation: In CH4, hydrogen is +1, so carbon is x + 4(+1) = 0 ➔ x = -4. In CO2, oxygen is -2, so carbon is x + 2(-2) = 0 ➔ x = +4.
33. (OAVS TGT Science PYQ) Bronze is an alloy consisting primarily of:
- A) Copper and Zinc
- B) Copper and Tin
- C) Lead and Tin
- D) Copper and Nickel
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Correct Answer: B) Copper and Tin
Explanation: Bronze is an alloy of Copper (Cu) and Tin (Sn). Brass is an alloy of Copper and Zinc.
34. (OAVS TGT Mock) The gas responsible for greenhouse warming that is released from paddy fields and livestock digestion is:
- A) Sulphur dioxide
- B) Methane
- C) Carbon monoxide
- D) Ozone
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Correct Answer: B) Methane
Explanation: Anaerobic methanogenic archaebacteria in waterlogged rice paddy soils and the rumen of ruminant livestock produce significant amounts of methane (CH4).
35. (OAVS TGT Science PYQ) Which of the following acids is present in stinging nettle leaves and ant stings?
- A) Oxalic acid
- B) Methanoic acid (formic acid)
- C) Citric acid
- D) Lactic acid
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Correct Answer: B) Methanoic acid (formic acid)
Explanation: Ant stings and the stinging hairs of nettle leaves inject methanoic acid (HCOOH), causing a burning pain that can be alleviated by applying a mild base like baking soda.
36. (OAVS TGT Science PYQ) In C3 plants, the primary carbon dioxide acceptor molecule in the Calvin cycle is:
- A) Phosphoenolpyruvate (PEP)
- B) Ribulose-1,5-bisphosphate (RuBP)
- C) Oxaloacetic acid (OAA)
- D) 3-phosphoglyceric acid (PGA)
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Correct Answer: B) Ribulose-1,5-bisphosphate (RuBP)
Explanation: In the Calvin cycle (C3 pathway), the 5-carbon ketose sugar RuBP binds CO2 in a reaction catalyzed by the enzyme RuBisCO, yielding two molecules of 3-phosphoglyceric acid (PGA).
37. (OAVS TGT Mock) Which of the following cranial nerves in humans regulates heart rate, peristalsis, and vocal cord function?
- A) Olfactory nerve (I)
- B) Trigeminal nerve (V)
- C) Vagus nerve (X)
- D) Hypoglossal nerve (XII)
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Correct Answer: C) Vagus nerve (X)
Explanation: The Vagus nerve (Cranial Nerve X) carries parasympathetic motor fibers that innervate the heart, lungs, and digestive tract, helping regulate heart rate and gastrointestinal motility.
38. (OAVS TGT Science PYQ) What is the net yield of ATP molecules produced by the complete aerobic oxidation of one molecule of glucose in a eukaryotic cell?
- A) 2 ATP
- B) 4 ATP
- C) 36 to 38 ATP
- D) 48 ATP
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Correct Answer: C) 36 to 38 ATP
Explanation: Aerobic cellular respiration yields 36 to 38 ATP per glucose molecule across glycolysis, the citric acid (Krebs) cycle, and mitochondrial oxidative phosphorylation.
39. (OAVS TGT Mock) In a classic dihybrid cross (RrYy x RrYy) involving round/wrinkled and yellow/green seeds, what is the expected frequency of recombinant (non-parental) phenotypes in the F2 generation?
- A) 9 / 16
- B) 6 / 16
- C) 1 / 16
- D) 3 / 16
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Correct Answer: B) 6 / 16
Explanation: The phenotypic ratio in the F2 generation is 9 Round-Yellow : 3 Round-Green : 3 Wrinkled-Yellow : 1 Wrinkled-Green. The parental phenotypes account for 9 + 1 = 10/16. The recombinant non-parental combinations (Round-Green and Wrinkled-Yellow) make up 3 + 3 = 6 / 16.
40. (OAVS TGT Science PYQ) The heart sound 'LUB' heard through a stethoscope during a cardiac cycle is caused by:
- A) Closure of the semilunar valves at the onset of ventricular diastole
- B) Closure of the atrioventricular (bicuspid and tricuspid) valves at the onset of ventricular systole
- C) Blood rushing into the aorta
- D) Contraction of the auricles
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Correct Answer: B) Closure of the atrioventricular (bicuspid and tricuspid) valves at the onset of ventricular systole
Explanation: The first heart sound ('LUB') is caused by the sudden closure of the tricuspid and mitral (bicuspid) AV valves at the start of ventricular systole. The second heart sound ('DUB') is caused by the closure of the aortic and pulmonary semilunar valves at the beginning of diastole.
41. (OAVS TGT Mock) Which cell organelle is responsible for intracellular digestion and is referred to as the 'suicide bag' of the cell?
- A) Peroxisome
- B) Ribosome
- C) Lysosome
- D) Centriole
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Correct Answer: C) Lysosome
Explanation: Lysosomes contain membrane-enclosed acid hydrolases (active around pH 4.5–5.0). In damaged or dying cells, lysosomal rupture releases these enzymes, causing autolysis.
42. (OAVS TGT Science PYQ) The gaseous plant hormone that promotes horizontal growth of seedlings, swelling of the axis, and apical hook formation in dicot seedlings is:
- A) Auxin
- B) Ethylene
- C) Cytokinin
- D) Gibberellin
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Correct Answer: B) Ethylene
Explanation: Ethylene (C2H4) induces the classic 'triple response' in etiolated dicot seedlings: inhibition of stem elongation, stimulation of radial stem swelling, and maintenance of the protective apical hook.
43. (OAVS TGT Mock) Which part of the human alimentary canal contains macroscopic mucosal folds termed 'villi' that increase the absorptive surface area?
- A) Oesophagus
- B) Small intestine
- C) Stomach
- D) Large intestine
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Correct Answer: B) Small intestine
Explanation: The mucosa of the small intestine (jejunum and ileum) forms finger-like projections called villi, which are covered with microvilli to increase the surface area available for nutrient absorption.
44. (OAVS TGT Science PYQ) In mammalian kidneys, the loop of Henle and vasa recta function together as a:
- A) Pressure ultrafiltration barrier
- B) Counter-current multiplier and exchange system for concentrating urine
- C) Glucose secretion pathway
- D) Urea synthesis engine
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Correct Answer: B) Counter-current multiplier and exchange system for concentrating urine
Explanation: The opposing flows in the descending and ascending limbs of the loop of Henle, alongside the capillary hairpin loops of the vasa recta, establish a counter-current multiplier system that builds a hyperosmotic medullary gradient to concentrate urine.
45. (OAVS TGT Mock) Turner's syndrome in humans is a genetic chromosomal disorder characterized by the karyotype:
- A) 47, XXY
- B) 45, XO
- C) 47, XYY
- D) 47, +21
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Correct Answer: B) 45, XO
Explanation: Turner's syndrome is caused by monosomy of the X chromosome (45, XO). Affected individuals are phenotypically female, sterile, and typically exhibit short stature and webbed necks. 47, XXY is Klinefelter's syndrome.
46. (OAVS TGT Science PYQ) In gymnosperms, the endosperm tissue is formed:
- A) After fertilization and is triploid (3n)
- B) Before fertilization and is haploid (n)
- C) After fertilization and is diploid (2n)
- D) By the fusion of secondary nucleus with male gamete
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Correct Answer: B) Before fertilization and is haploid (n)
Explanation: Unlike angiosperms, where double fertilization forms a triploid (3n) endosperm, gymnosperm endosperm develops directly from the female gametophyte before fertilization and is haploid (n).
47. (OAVS TGT Mock) Which pancreatic hormone promotes glycogenolysis (breakdown of glycogen to glucose) in the liver to raise blood sugar?
- A) Insulin
- B) Glucagon
- C) Somatostatin
- D) Oxytocin
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Correct Answer: B) Glucagon
Explanation: Secreted by alpha cells in the islets of Langerhans, glucagon acts on hepatocytes to stimulate glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis, elevating blood glucose levels.
48. (OAVS TGT Science PYQ) The nitrogenous base found exclusively in RNA and not in DNA is:
- A) Adenine
- B) Guanine
- C) Thymine
- D) Uracil
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Correct Answer: D) Uracil
Explanation: DNA contains adenine, guanine, cytosine, and thymine. In RNA, the pyrimidine base uracil (U) replaces thymine (5-methyluracil).
49. (OAVS TGT Mock) Which simple permanent plant tissue is characterized by dead cells with thick, lignified secondary walls that provide mechanical strength?
- A) Parenchyma
- B) Collenchyma
- C) Sclerenchyma
- D) Chlorenchyma
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Correct Answer: C) Sclerenchyma
Explanation: Sclerenchyma tissue consists of long, narrow, dead cells with thick, lignified secondary cell walls and narrow lumina, providing structural and mechanical support.
50. (OAVS TGT Science PYQ) In human reproduction, fertilization of the ovum by a sperm normally occurs in the:
- A) Uterine fundus
- B) Ampullary region of the fallopian tube
- C) Cervical canal
- D) Vagina
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Correct Answer: B) Ampullary region of the fallopian tube
Explanation: Syngamy (fertilization) occurs at the ampulla (or ampullary-isthmic junction) of the fallopian tube (oviduct).
51. (OAVS TGT Mock) The oxygen-haemoglobin dissociation curve shifts to the right under which of the following physiological conditions (Bohr effect)?
- A) Decreased pCO2 and increased pH
- B) Increased pCO2, increased H+ ion concentration, and elevated temperature
- C) Lower temperature and decreased acidity
- D) High pO2 in alveolar capillaries
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Correct Answer: B) Increased pCO2, increased H+ ion concentration, and elevated temperature
Explanation: Elevated carbon dioxide levels, higher acidity (lower pH), and increased temperature reduce haemoglobin's affinity for oxygen, shifting the curve to the right and promoting O2 release to respiring tissues.
52. (OAVS TGT Science PYQ) Which enzyme present in human saliva hydrolyzes dietary starch into maltose?
- A) Pepsin
- B) Salivary amylase (Ptyalin)
- C) Trypsin
- D) Lipase
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Correct Answer: B) Salivary amylase (Ptyalin)
Explanation: Salivary amylase (ptyalin) hydrolyzes roughly 30% of ingested starch into maltose, isomaltose, and alpha-dextrins at an optimum oral pH of around 6.8.
53. (OAVS TGT Mock) Which of the following is an example of an ex-situ conservation strategy for endangered biodiversity?
- A) National parks
- B) Biosphere reserves
- C) Wildlife sanctuaries
- D) Botanical gardens and seed banks
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Correct Answer: D) Botanical gardens and seed banks
Explanation: Ex-situ conservation protects threatened species outside their natural habitats in controlled settings like botanical gardens, zoological parks, cryobanks, and seed banks.
54. (OAVS TGT Science PYQ) The structural and functional units of the human liver arranged in hexagonal patterns are termed:
- A) Renal pyramids
- B) Hepatic lobules
- C) Crypts of Lieberkuhn
- D) Peyer's patches
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Correct Answer: B) Hepatic lobules
Explanation: Hepatic lobules are the functional structural units of the liver, consisting of cords of hepatocytes radiating outward from a central vein and enclosed by a Glisson's capsule.
55. (OAVS TGT Mock) What is the function of the enzyme DNA ligase in molecular biology and genetic engineering?
- A) Cutting DNA strands at specific recognition palindromes
- B) Joining DNA fragments by forming phosphodiester bonds
- C) Unwinding double-stranded DNA during replication
- D) Synthesizing RNA primers
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Correct Answer: B) Joining DNA fragments by forming phosphodiester bonds
Explanation: DNA ligase seals nicks in the sugar-phosphate backbone by catalyzing the formation of phosphodiester bonds between adjacent 3'-hydroxyl and 5'-phosphate ends.
56. (OAVS TGT Science PYQ) Which of the following represents the correct sequence of reflex arc components during a voluntary or spinal reflex action?
- A) Receptor ➔ Sensory neuron ➔ Interneuron (Spinal cord) ➔ Motor neuron ➔ Effector
- B) Effector ➔ Motor neuron ➔ Spinal cord ➔ Sensory neuron ➔ Receptor
- C) Receptor ➔ Motor neuron ➔ Brain ➔ Sensory neuron ➔ Effector
- D) Sensory neuron ➔ Receptor ➔ Effector ➔ Motor neuron
👉 Touch to Show Answer & Explanation
Correct Answer: A) Receptor ➔ Sensory neuron ➔ Interneuron (Spinal cord) ➔ Motor neuron ➔ Effector
Explanation: In a reflex arc, the sensory receptor detects a stimulus, sends an impulse along the afferent (sensory) neuron to the spinal interneuron, which relays it through an efferent (motor) neuron to trigger the effector muscle or gland.
57. (OAVS TGT Mock) Which vector-borne protozoan parasite is the causative agent of malignant malaria in humans?
- A) Plasmodium vivax
- B) Plasmodium falciparum
- C) Plasmodium malariae
- D) Plasmodium ovale
👉 Touch to Show Answer & Explanation
Correct Answer: B) Plasmodium falciparum
Explanation: Plasmodium falciparum causes cerebral/malignant tertian malaria, the most severe and potentially fatal form of the disease.
58. (OAVS TGT Science PYQ) Guttation, the exudation of liquid droplets from uninjured margins of herbaceous leaves, occurs through specialized pores termed:
- A) Lenticels
- B) Hydathodes
- C) Pneumatophores
- D) Cuticles
👉 Touch to Show Answer & Explanation
Correct Answer: B) Hydathodes
Explanation: When root pressure is high and transpiration is low (e.g., humid mornings), xylem sap is forced out of hydathodes located at vein endings near leaf margins.
59. (OAVS TGT Mock) Which part of the human brain acts as the primary relay station for sensory impulses traveling to the cerebral cortex?
- A) Hypothalamus
- B) Thalamus
- C) Pons
- D) Medulla
👉 Touch to Show Answer & Explanation
Correct Answer: B) Thalamus
Explanation: The thalamus coordinates sensory inputs, routing all sensory impulses (except olfaction) to their corresponding sensory areas in the cerebrum.
60. (OAVS TGT Science PYQ) In an aquatic ecosystem, phytoplankton serve as the:
- A) Primary consumers
- B) Primary producers
- C) Secondary consumers
- D) Decomposers
👉 Touch to Show Answer & Explanation
Correct Answer: B) Primary producers
Explanation: Microscopic photosynthetic organisms like diatoms and green algae (phytoplankton) fix solar energy to produce biomass, serving as primary producers in aquatic food chains.
61. (OAVS TGT Mock) In the human female reproductive cycle, regression of the corpus luteum occurs due to a lack of fertilization, causing a decline in which hormone?
- A) Estrogen
- B) Progesterone
- C) Prolactin
- D) Oxytocin
👉 Touch to Show Answer & Explanation
Correct Answer: B) Progesterone
Explanation: If fertilization does not occur, the corpus luteum degenerates into the corpus albicans. This causes progesterone levels to drop, destabilizing the endometrium and triggering menstruation.
62. (OAVS TGT Science PYQ) Which blood vessel carries deoxygenated blood from the right ventricle to the lungs for oxygenation?
- A) Systemic Aorta
- B) Pulmonary Artery
- C) Pulmonary Vein
- D) Superior Vena Cava
👉 Touch to Show Answer & Explanation
Correct Answer: B) Pulmonary Artery
Explanation: The pulmonary artery is the only artery in the adult human circulatory system that carries deoxygenated blood, transporting it from the right ventricle to the pulmonary capillaries.
63. (OAVS TGT Mock) The primary structural component of fungal cell walls is:
- A) Peptidoglycan
- B) Chitin
- C) Pectin
- D) Lignin
👉 Touch to Show Answer & Explanation
Correct Answer: B) Chitin
Explanation: True fungal cell walls are composed of chitin, a tough homopolymer of N-acetylglucosamine (NAG). Plant walls contain cellulose, and bacterial walls contain peptidoglycan.
64. (OAVS TGT Science PYQ) In human genetics, Down's syndrome is caused by which chromosomal aberration?
- A) Monosomy of chromosome 21
- B) Trisomy of autosome 21
- C) Deletion of short arm of chromosome 5
- D) Inversion on chromosome 18
👉 Touch to Show Answer & Explanation
Correct Answer: B) Trisomy of autosome 21
Explanation: Down's syndrome is caused by the presence of an extra copy of autosome 21 (trisomy 21: 47, +21), typically resulting from meiotic non-disjunction of maternal chromosomes.
65. (OAVS TGT Mock) Which cells of the gastric mucosa secrete hydrochloric acid (HCl) and intrinsic factor?
- A) Peptic (chief) cells
- B) Parietal (oxyntic) cells
- C) Goblet mucous cells
- D) Enteroendocrine cells
👉 Touch to Show Answer & Explanation
Correct Answer: B) Parietal (oxyntic) cells
Explanation: Parietal (oxyntic) cells secrete hydrochloric acid (which maintains gastric pH at 1.5–2.0) and Castle's intrinsic factor (essential for vitamin B12 absorption in the ileum).
66. (OAVS TGT Science PYQ) The condition known as erythroblastosis foetalis occurs when:
- A) Rh-negative mother carries an Rh-positive foetus during second pregnancy
- B) Rh-positive mother carries an Rh-negative foetus
- C) Both mother and foetus are Rh-negative
- D) Mother is ABO incompatible with father
👉 Touch to Show Answer & Explanation
Correct Answer: A) Rh-negative mother carries an Rh-positive foetus during second pregnancy
Explanation: If an Rh-negative mother carries an Rh-positive foetus, maternal anti-Rh IgG antibodies produced during the first delivery can cross the placenta in subsequent pregnancies, causing haemolytic anaemia in the foetus.
67. (OAVS TGT Mock) Which plant tissue is primarily responsible for secondary lateral growth, increasing stem and root girth?
- A) Apical meristem
- B) Intercalary meristem
- C) Lateral meristem (Vascular and Cork cambium)
- D) Collenchyma
👉 Touch to Show Answer & Explanation
Correct Answer: C) Lateral meristem (Vascular and Cork cambium)
Explanation: Lateral meristems (fascicular vascular cambium, interfascicular cambium, and phellogen/cork cambium) divide periclinally to produce secondary vascular tissues, increasing organ girth.
68. (OAVS TGT Science PYQ) Which part of the human kidney receives collecting ducts directly at the tips of the medullary pyramids?
- A) Renal cortex
- B) Renal calyces and pelvis
- C) Urinary bladder
- D) Loop of Henle
👉 Touch to Show Answer & Explanation
Correct Answer: B) Renal calyces and pelvis
Explanation: Urine from collecting ducts drains through the ducts of Bellini at the renal papillae into the minor and major calyces, which converge into the funnel-shaped renal pelvis.
69. (OAVS TGT Mock) Which vitamin is essential for synthesizing blood clotting factors II (prothrombin), VII, IX, and X in the liver?
- A) Vitamin A
- B) Vitamin C
- C) Vitamin K
- D) Vitamin D
👉 Touch to Show Answer & Explanation
Correct Answer: C) Vitamin K
Explanation: Vitamin K (phylloquinone) serves as a necessary cofactor for gamma-glutamyl carboxylase, which activates hepatic prothrombin and clotting factors VII, IX, and X.
70. (OAVS TGT Science PYQ) In ecology, organisms that can tolerate and thrive in a wide range of environmental temperatures are referred to as:
- A) Stenothermal
- B) Eurythermal
- C) Stenohaline
- D) Poikilothermal
👉 Touch to Show Answer & Explanation
Correct Answer: B) Eurythermal
Explanation: Organisms that tolerate a broad range of thermal variations are eurythermal. Those restricted to a narrow temperature range are stenothermal.
71. (OAVS TGT Mock) The Casparian strip in plant roots is primarily composed of which water-impermeable substance?
- A) Pectin
- B) Cellulose
- C) Suberin
- D) Hemicellulose
👉 Touch to Show Answer & Explanation
Correct Answer: C) Suberin
Explanation: The Casparian strip is an endodermal cell wall band impregnated with waxy, hydrophobic suberin.
72. (OAVS TGT Science PYQ) In human lungs, gas exchange between alveolar air and capillary blood occurs by:
- A) Simple passive diffusion down partial pressure gradients
- B) Active primary transport using ATP
- C) Facilitated carrier-mediated diffusion
- D) Osmosis
👉 Touch to Show Answer & Explanation
Correct Answer: A) Simple passive diffusion down partial pressure gradients
Explanation: Respiratory exchange across the thin respiratory membrane (alveolar squamous epithelium, basement membrane, capillary endothelium) occurs via simple passive diffusion driven by partial pressure differences (pO2 and pCO2).
73. (OAVS TGT Mock) Which part of a mature human sperm contains the hydrolytic enzymes necessary to penetrate the ovum's zona pellucida?
- A) Middle piece
- B) Acrosome
- C) Centriole
- D) Tail flagellum
👉 Touch to Show Answer & Explanation
Correct Answer: B) Acrosome
Explanation: The acrosome (derived from the Golgi apparatus) caps the sperm nucleus and contains sperm lysins (hyaluronidase and acrosin) that digest the corona radiata and zona pellucida during fertilization.
74. (OAVS TGT Science PYQ) Which of the following is an example of an obligate intracellular parasite lacking cellular machinery?
- A) Bacteria
- B) Viruses
- C) Fungi
- D) Protozoa
👉 Touch to Show Answer & Explanation
Correct Answer: B) Viruses
Explanation: Viruses are acellular, inert nucleoprotein particles outside host cells; they rely entirely on the metabolic machinery of a living host cell to replicate.
75. (OAVS TGT Mock) In plants, phototropic bending of shoot tips toward unilateral light is primarily driven by:
- A) Destruction of auxin on the shaded side
- B) Lateral migration and higher accumulation of auxin on the shaded side, stimulating cell elongation
- C) Cytokinin accumulation on the illuminated side
- D) Ethylene release from apical buds
👉 Touch to Show Answer & Explanation
Correct Answer: B) Lateral migration and higher accumulation of auxin on the shaded side, stimulating cell elongation
Explanation: Unilateral light causes auxin to migrate to the shaded side of the shoot. The increased auxin concentration stimulates cell elongation on that side, causing the shoot to bend toward the light.
76. (OAVS Pedagogy PYQ) Which of the following best describes the 'Process Approach' in school science instruction?
- A) Emphasizing memorization of final conclusions and historical laws
- B) Focusing on developing scientific skills such as observing, inferring, hypothesizing, and experimenting
- C) Limiting instruction to textbook reading sessions
- D) Providing ready-made answers for all laboratory exercises
👉 Touch to Show Answer & Explanation
Correct Answer: B) Focusing on developing scientific skills such as observing, inferring, hypothesizing, and experimenting
Explanation: The process approach treats science as a dynamic way of thinking, prioritizing inquiry and methodological investigation skills over passive factual memorization.
77. (OAVS Pedagogy Mock) In lesson planning using the Herbartian formal steps, what is the correct chronological sequence?
- A) Presentation ➔ Preparation ➔ Comparison ➔ Generalization ➔ Application
- B) Preparation ➔ Presentation ➔ Comparison and Association ➔ Generalization ➔ Application
- C) Application ➔ Preparation ➔ Presentation ➔ Generalization ➔ Comparison
- D) Generalization ➔ Presentation ➔ Preparation ➔ Association ➔ Application
👉 Touch to Show Answer & Explanation
Correct Answer: B) Preparation ➔ Presentation ➔ Comparison and Association ➔ Generalization ➔ Application
Explanation: The classic five-step Herbartian sequence proceeds as: Preparation (Introduction) ➔ Presentation ➔ Comparison/Association ➔ Generalization ➔ Application.
78. (OAVS Pedagogy PYQ) Which test item format is most effective for objectively measuring a student's ability to evaluate experimental designs without scoring bias?
- A) Extended-response essay question
- B) Multiple-choice item with plausible distractors based on common misconceptions
- C) Oral interview
- D) Free-writing paragraph
👉 Touch to Show Answer & Explanation
Correct Answer: B) Multiple-choice item with plausible distractors based on common misconceptions
Explanation: Well-designed multiple-choice questions provide high scoring objectivity and statistical reliability while targeting specific diagnostic misconceptions through structured distractors.
79. (OAVS Pedagogy Mock) The instructional technique where a teacher models a cognitive strategy aloud (e.g., balancing a chemical equation) while students observe and reflect is called:
- A) Cognitive Apprenticeship and Think-Aloud Modeling
- B) Blind Drill
- C) Rote Recitation
- D) Programmed Independent Study
👉 Touch to Show Answer & Explanation
Correct Answer: A) Cognitive Apprenticeship and Think-Aloud Modeling
Explanation: Think-aloud modeling makes expert problem-solving strategies and internal reasoning visible, scaffolding students as they internalize procedural steps.
80. (OAVS Pedagogy PYQ) Which of the following is considered an authentic criterion for evaluating a secondary science textbook?
- A) Total number of pages and decorative cover design
- B) Conceptual accuracy, logical sequencing, age-appropriateness, and integration of inquiry activities
- C) High market price
- D) Heavy weight and complex technical jargon
👉 Touch to Show Answer & Explanation
Correct Answer: B) Conceptual accuracy, logical sequencing, age-appropriateness, and integration of inquiry activities
Explanation: Quality indicators for science textbooks (e.g., the Hunter score card) focus on pedagogical soundness, clear concepts, developmental appropriateness, and support for inquiry.
81. (OAVS Pedagogy Mock) In a constructivist science lesson, when a student poses an unexpected question that contradicts the planned topic, the teacher should:
- A) Scold the student for disrupting the lesson
- B) Ignore the question and continue with the lecture
- C) Acknowledge the question, briefly examine its connection to the topic, and encourage investigation
- D) Tell the student that the question is outside the syllabus
👉 Touch to Show Answer & Explanation
Correct Answer: C) Acknowledge the question, briefly examine its connection to the topic, and encourage investigation
Explanation: Constructivist teaching values student curiosity and treats genuine questions as opportunities to support meaningful inquiry and critical thinking.
82. (OAVS Pedagogy PYQ) Which of the following levels in Bloom's Cognitive Domain is assessed by the question: 'Design an experiment to demonstrate that carbon dioxide is essential for photosynthesis'?
- A) Remembering
- B) Understanding
- C) Analyzing
- D) Creating (Synthesis)
👉 Touch to Show Answer & Explanation
Correct Answer: D) Creating (Synthesis)
Explanation: Designing an original experimental plan requires students to combine multiple principles, control variables, and produce a new procedure, engaging the highest cognitive level: 'Creating'.
83. (OAVS Pedagogy Mock) What is the primary purpose of maintaining an aquarium, terrarium, or vivarium in a school science laboratory?
- A) Classroom decoration only
- B) Providing hands-on opportunities to observe living ecological interactions and animal behaviours
- C) Eliminating the need for outdoor field trips
- D) Raising animals for commercial sale
👉 Touch to Show Answer & Explanation
Correct Answer: B) Providing hands-on opportunities to observe living ecological interactions and animal behaviours
Explanation: Vivaria and aquaria provide concrete, observable models of micro-ecosystems, supporting ongoing observation of life processes, organism adaptations, and environmental balances.
84. (OAVS Pedagogy PYQ) In criterion-referenced evaluation in secondary science, a student's performance is assessed against:
- A) The average performance of the entire peer group
- B) Predetermined absolute learning standards and behavioral competencies
- C) Regional percentile ranks
- D) The highest score achieved in the school
👉 Touch to Show Answer & Explanation
Correct Answer: B) Predetermined absolute learning standards and behavioral competencies
Explanation: Criterion-referenced assessment evaluates a student's mastery against explicit, predetermined learning benchmarks, rather than ranking them relative to other students (norm-referenced).
85. (OAVS Pedagogy Mock) Which instructional aid is categorized as an 'activity aid' in science education?
- A) Chalkboard
- B) Science fair, field trip, and laboratory experimentation
- C) Textbook chart
- D) Slide projector
👉 Touch to Show Answer & Explanation
Correct Answer: B) Science fair, field trip, and laboratory experimentation
Explanation: According to Dale's Cone of Experience, activity aids provide direct, purposeful hands-on experiences through field excursions, project design, and lab work.
86. (OAVS Pedagogy PYQ) The primary function of formative assessment in teaching chemical reactions is to:
- A) Assign semester grades
- B) Identify student learning difficulties and adjust ongoing instruction in real time
- C) Rank students for state-level competitions
- D) Fulfill administrative reporting requirements
👉 Touch to Show Answer & Explanation
Correct Answer: B) Identify student learning difficulties and adjust ongoing instruction in real time
Explanation: Formative evaluation gathers immediate feedback during instruction to diagnose gaps and adapt teaching approaches to student needs.
87. (OAVS Pedagogy Mock) In designing laboratory experiments, a variable that is deliberately altered to observe its effect on another variable is called the:
- A) Dependent variable
- B) Independent variable
- C) Controlled variable
- D) Confounding variable
👉 Touch to Show Answer & Explanation
Correct Answer: B) Independent variable
Explanation: The independent variable is systematically manipulated by the experimenter. The resulting observed or measured change is the dependent variable.
88. (OAVS Pedagogy PYQ) Which approach to science teaching starts with specific observations and experiments and guides students to derive general rules or principles?
- A) Deductive approach
- B) Inductive approach
- C) Lecture approach
- D) Historical approach
👉 Touch to Show Answer & Explanation
Correct Answer: B) Inductive approach
Explanation: The inductive approach moves from the particular to the general (observation ➔ pattern ➔ generalization), whereas the deductive approach introduces rules first and tests them with examples.
89. (OAVS Pedagogy Mock) A science teacher uses an interactive simulation to help students visualize molecular motion during gas compression. In this context, the primary role of ICT is to:
- A) Replace physical experiments entirely
- B) Represent unobservable microscopic phenomena dynamically to aid conceptual understanding
- C) Keep students busy during class
- D) Reduce the teacher's preparation time
👉 Touch to Show Answer & Explanation
Correct Answer: B) Represent unobservable microscopic phenomena dynamically to aid conceptual understanding
Explanation: Digital simulations help bridge the gap between abstract theoretical models and visible macroscopic observations by animating unobservable submicroscopic behaviors.
90. (OAVS Pedagogy PYQ) Which of the following is a primary characteristic of a standardized science test?
- A) Subjective marking criteria
- B) Established norms, high validity, and consistent scoring procedures
- C) Varying administration guidelines across schools
- D) Reliance on oral essay prompts
👉 Touch to Show Answer & Explanation
Correct Answer: B) Established norms, high validity, and consistent scoring procedures
Explanation: A standardized test has uniform administration and scoring protocols, established empirical norms, and documented reliability and validity.
91. (OAVS Pedagogy Mock) When students work in small heterogeneous groups to investigate water quality in local ponds, this collaborative approach is known as:
- A) Competitive individual learning
- B) Cooperative learning
- C) Programmed learning
- D) Direct instruction
👉 Touch to Show Answer & Explanation
Correct Answer: B) Cooperative learning
Explanation: Cooperative learning engages mixed-ability groups where members collaborate toward a shared academic goal, fostering peer discussion and shared responsibility.
92. (OAVS Pedagogy PYQ) Which of the following pedagogical strategies is most effective for addressing alternative frameworks (misconceptions) in genetics?
- A) Punishing students for incorrect answers
- B) Presenting counter-evidence and guided discussions that help students reconstruct their conceptual models
- C) Telling students to memorize the textbook glossary
- D) Avoiding challenging questions in exams
👉 Touch to Show Answer & Explanation
Correct Answer: B) Presenting counter-evidence and guided discussions that help students reconstruct their conceptual models
Explanation: Conceptual change occurs when learners encounter discrepant data that challenges their intuitive assumptions, prompting them to actively reorganize their understanding.
93. (OAVS Pedagogy Mock) The term 'Pedagogical Content Knowledge' (PCK), introduced by Lee Shulman, refers to:
- A) General classroom management techniques unrelated to specific subjects
- B) The specialized blending of subject content and pedagogical strategies that makes concepts accessible to learners
- C) Pure subject-matter expertise without teaching experience
- D) Knowledge of school administrative regulations
👉 Touch to Show Answer & Explanation
Correct Answer: B) The specialized blending of subject content and pedagogical strategies that makes concepts accessible to learners
Explanation: PCK represents the intersection of content knowledge and pedagogy—knowing how to structure, represent, and adapt specific scientific concepts for diverse learners.
94. (OAVS Pedagogy PYQ) Which evaluation technique systematically compiles student work samples, self-reflections, and project reports over an entire academic term?
- A) Terminal examination
- B) Student Portfolio assessment
- C) Speed test
- D) Sociometric ranking
👉 Touch to Show Answer & Explanation
Correct Answer: B) Student Portfolio assessment
Explanation: A portfolio is a purposeful, longitudinal collection of student work that documents academic growth, process skills, and self-reflection over time.
95. (OAVS Pedagogy Mock) According to the revised Bloom's taxonomy, which action verb corresponds to the 'Analyzing' level?
- A) Name
- B) Differentiate
- C) Construct
- D) Memorize
👉 Touch to Show Answer & Explanation
Correct Answer: B) Differentiate
Explanation: Differentiate, distinguish, deconstruct, and examine require breaking material into its component parts to determine relationships, typical of the 'Analyzing' level.
96. (OAVS Pedagogy PYQ) In a laboratory safety protocol, when concentrated acid accidentally splashes onto a student's hand, the immediate first-aid measure is to:
- A) Apply concentrated sodium hydroxide to neutralize it
- B) Flush the affected area with large volumes of running cold water for at least 15 minutes
- C) Cover the skin with an airtight oil bandage
- D) Rub the skin vigorously with dry cotton
👉 Touch to Show Answer & Explanation
Correct Answer: B) Flush the affected area with large volumes of running cold water for at least 15 minutes
Explanation: Continuous flushing with abundant cold water dilutes and removes the acid while dissipating heat. Applying strong bases must be avoided as neutralization is exothermic and causes further tissue damage.
97. (OAVS Pedagogy Mock) The principle of 'learning by doing' in science education is most directly supported by which instructional method?
- A) Textbook lecture
- B) Laboratory and Project-based method
- C) Memorization drill
- D) Programmed instruction
👉 Touch to Show Answer & Explanation
Correct Answer: B) Laboratory and Project-based method
Explanation: Laboratory and project-based approaches engage students directly with concrete materials and empirical investigations, operationalizing 'learning by doing'.
98. (OAVS Pedagogy PYQ) Which of the following is a primary objective of teaching science at the secondary school stage according to NEP 2020?
- A) Encouraging rote memorization of formulas
- B) Fostering critical thinking, scientific inquiry, creativity, and evidence-based decision-making
- C) Restricting study to textbook questions only
- D) Preparing students solely for written examinations
👉 Touch to Show Answer & Explanation
Correct Answer: B) Fostering critical thinking, scientific inquiry, creativity, and evidence-based decision-making
Explanation: NEP 2020 emphasizes moving away from rote memorization toward building critical thinking, problem-solving skills, and a spirit of scientific inquiry.
99. (OAVS Pedagogy Mock) A science teacher uses concept cartoons depicting characters with differing views on why ice melts. This instructional strategy is primarily used to:
- A) Test artistic skills
- B) Prompt classroom discussion and bring student misconceptions to the surface
- C) Replace textbook reading assignments
- D) Grade student handwriting
👉 Touch to Show Answer & Explanation
Correct Answer: B) Prompt classroom discussion and bring student misconceptions to the surface
Explanation: Concept cartoons present common alternative conceptions in an informal, non-threatening format, encouraging peer debate and helping teachers identify learning needs.
100. (OAVS Pedagogy PYQ) What distinguishes an achievement test from a diagnostic test in secondary science teaching?
- A) Achievement tests measure overall learning attainment, while diagnostic tests pinpoint specific weaknesses and conceptual errors
- B) Diagnostic tests are used solely for awarding final grades
- C) Achievement tests contain only objective questions
- D) Diagnostic tests do not require teacher evaluation
👉 Touch to Show Answer & Explanation
Correct Answer: A) Achievement tests measure overall learning attainment, while diagnostic tests pinpoint specific weaknesses and conceptual errors
Explanation: Achievement tests assess general mastery of educational goals at the end of a unit, whereas diagnostic tests identify the precise nature and causes of persistent learning difficulties to inform remediation.