OAVS TGT Science Part III — Set 01 Mock Test (100 Questions)
Target: OAVS TGT Science (CBZ) | Chemistry, Biology & Science Pedagogy
1. (OAVS TGT PYQ) When crystals of lead nitrate are heated strongly in a dry test tube, what changes are observed?
- A) A colourless, suffocating gas is evolved leaving a white residue
- B) Brown fumes of nitrogen dioxide are evolved leaving a yellow residue of lead monoxide
- C) Yellow fumes of chlorine are evolved leaving a black residue
- D) Reddish-brown fumes of lead vapour are produced with no residue
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Correct Answer: B) Brown fumes of nitrogen dioxide are evolved leaving a yellow residue of lead monoxide
Explanation: Thermal decomposition of lead nitrate: 2Pb(NO3)2(s) ➔ 2PbO(s) + 4NO2(g) + O2(g). Lead monoxide (PbO) is a yellow residue when cold, and nitrogen dioxide (NO2) appears as pungent brown fumes.
2. (OAVS TGT Mock) Which of the following balanced chemical equations represents a precipitation as well as a double displacement reaction?
- A) Zn + H2SO4 ➔ ZnSO4 + H2
- B) Na2SO4 + BaCl2 ➔ BaSO4 + 2NaCl
- C) 2Mg + O2 ➔ 2MgO
- D) CaCO3 ➔ CaO + CO2
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Correct Answer: B) Na2SO4 + BaCl2 ➔ BaSO4 + 2NaCl
Explanation: Sodium sulphate and barium chloride exchange ions to produce an insoluble white precipitate of barium sulphate (BaSO4) and soluble sodium chloride.
3. (OAVS TGT PYQ) An aqueous solution with a pH of 3 is diluted with water until its volume is increased 100 times. What will be the approximate new pH of the resulting solution at 25°C?
- A) 1
- B) 5
- C) 7
- D) 9
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Correct Answer: B) 5
Explanation: Initial pH = 3 means [H+] = 10^-3 M. Diluting the solution 100-fold (10^2 times) decreases the hydrogen ion concentration to (10^-3) / 10^2 = 10^-5 M. Therefore, new pH = -log(10^-5) = 5.
4. (OAVS TGT Mock) Bleaching powder gives the smell of chlorine when exposed to open air because:
- A) It contains excess unstable free chlorine gas trapped inside
- B) It reacts slowly with atmospheric carbon dioxide to release chlorine
- C) It reacts with atmospheric nitrogen to form ammonium chloride
- D) It spontaneously hydrolyzes into calcium chloride and oxygen gas
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Correct Answer: B) It reacts slowly with atmospheric carbon dioxide to release chlorine
Explanation: Bleaching powder (CaOCl2) reacts with atmospheric carbon dioxide: CaOCl2 + CO2 ➔ CaCO3 + Cl2(g). The liberated chlorine gas accounts for the characteristic smell.
5. (OAVS TGT PYQ) Which of the following metals does not react with either cold water or hot water, but reacts vigorously with steam to produce hydrogen gas?
- A) Sodium
- B) Calcium
- C) Magnesium
- D) Iron
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Correct Answer: D) Iron
Explanation: Sodium and calcium react with cold water; magnesium reacts with boiling water; iron, zinc, and aluminium do not react with liquid water but react with steam: 3Fe(s) + 4H2O(g) ➔ Fe3O4(s) + 4H2(g).
6. (OAVS TGT Mock) An ore on heating strongly in the presence of excess air gives a metal oxide along with sulphur dioxide gas. This metallurgical process is termed:
- A) Calcination
- B) Roasting
- C) Smelting
- D) Refining
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Correct Answer: B) Roasting
Explanation: Roasting is the process of heating sulphide ores strongly in the presence of excess air below their melting point to convert them into metal oxides (e.g., 2ZnS + 3O2 ➔ 2ZnO + 2SO2). Calcination is done in limited air for carbonate ores.
7. (OAVS TGT PYQ) The IUPAC name of the compound CH3-CH(CH3)-CH2-CHO is:
- A) 2-methylbutanal
- B) 3-methylbutanal
- C) 3-methylbutanone
- D) 2-methylbutanoic acid
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Correct Answer: B) 3-methylbutanal
Explanation: Number the 4-carbon chain starting from the aldehyde carbon: C1 is -CHO, C2 is -CH2-, C3 bears the -CH3 methyl group, and C4 is terminal -CH3. The name is 3-methylbutanal.
8. (OAVS TGT Mock) How many structural isomers are possible for the alkane with molecular formula C5H12 (pentane)?
- A) 2
- B) 3
- C) 4
- D) 5
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Correct Answer: B) 3
Explanation: Pentane (C5H12) has 3 chain isomers: n-pentane, isopentane (2-methylbutane), and neopentane (2,2-dimethylpropane).
9. (OAVS TGT PYQ) Which of the following pairs of elements will exhibit the most similar chemical properties?
- A) Sodium (Z=11) and Magnesium (Z=12)
- B) Nitrogen (Z=7) and Phosphorus (Z=15)
- C) Carbon (Z=6) and Chlorine (Z=17)
- D) Boron (Z=5) and Beryllium (Z=4)
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Correct Answer: B) Nitrogen (Z=7) and Phosphorus (Z=15)
Explanation: Elements in the same group possess identical valence electron configurations. Nitrogen (2, 5) and Phosphorus (2, 8, 5) both belong to Group 15 and display similar chemical properties.
10. (OAVS TGT Mock) The reaction between ethanol and ethanoic acid in the presence of concentrated sulphuric acid produces a sweet-smelling compound. This reaction is called:
- A) Saponification
- B) Esterification
- C) Decarboxylation
- D) Dehydrogenation
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Correct Answer: B) Esterification
Explanation: Carboxylic acids react with alcohols in the presence of an acid catalyst to produce esters: CH3COOH + C2H5OH ➔ CH3COOC2H5 (ethyl ethanoate) + H2O.
11. (OAVS TGT Science PYQ) What is the maximum number of electrons that can be accommodated in the M shell of an atom?
- A) 8
- B) 18
- C) 32
- D) 2
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Correct Answer: B) 18
Explanation: The maximum number of electrons in principal shell n is given by 2n^2. For the M shell, n = 3, so 2 * (3)^2 = 2 * 9 = 18 electrons.
12. (OAVS TGT Mock) When copper powder is heated in a china dish, its reddish-brown surface turns black because of the formation of:
- A) Copper(I) oxide (Cu2O)
- B) Copper(II) oxide (CuO)
- C) Basic copper carbonate
- D) Copper sulphate
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Correct Answer: B) Copper(II) oxide (CuO)
Explanation: Copper reacts with atmospheric oxygen on heating to form black copper(II) oxide: 2Cu + O2 ➔ 2CuO.
13. (OAVS TGT Science PYQ) An element X forms a chloride with formula XCl2, which is a solid with a high melting point. Element X is most likely to be in the same group of the Periodic Table as:
- A) Na
- B) Mg
- C) Al
- D) Si
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Correct Answer: B) Mg
Explanation: The formula XCl2 indicates that element X has a valency of 2. Among the given options, Magnesium (Mg) belongs to Group 2 with a valency of 2 and forms an ionic solid chloride (MgCl2) with a high melting point.
14. (OAVS TGT Mock) Which gas is evolved when sodium hydrogen carbonate reacts with dilute ethanoic acid?
- A) Hydrogen gas which burns with a pop sound
- B) Carbon dioxide gas which turns lime water milky
- C) Oxygen gas which rekindles a glowing splint
- D) Sulphur dioxide gas which turns acidified potassium dichromate green
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Correct Answer: B) Carbon dioxide gas which turns lime water milky
Explanation: CH3COOH + NaHCO3 ➔ CH3COONa + H2O + CO2(g). The carbon dioxide produced creates brisk effervescence and forms a precipitate of insoluble CaCO3 in lime water.
15. (OAVS TGT Science PYQ) Tooth decay starts when the pH of the human mouth falls below:
- A) 5.5
- B) 6.8
- C) 7.4
- D) 8.2
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Correct Answer: A) 5.5
Explanation: Tooth enamel made of calcium hydroxyapatite is corroded when bacterial fermentation of residual food sugars lowers the oral pH below 5.5.
16. (OAVS TGT Mock) Which of the following represents the correct order of increasing non-metallic character across the second period?
- A) B < C < N < O < F
- B) F < O < N < C < B
- C) C < B < N < F < O
- D) F < N < C < B < O
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Correct Answer: A) B < C < N < O < F
Explanation: Non-metallic character increases across a period from left to right due to an increase in effective nuclear charge and electronegativity. Fluorine is the most electronegative non-metal in period 2.
17. (OAVS TGT Science PYQ) In the electrolytic decomposition of acidified water, the ratio of the volumes of hydrogen and oxygen gases collected at the cathode and anode is:
- A) 1 : 2
- B) 2 : 1
- C) 1 : 1
- D) 4 : 1
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Correct Answer: B) 2 : 1
Explanation: Electrolysis reaction: 2H2O(l) ➔ 2H2(g) [at cathode] + O2(g) [at anode]. Because water contains 2 parts hydrogen to 1 part oxygen by volume, the ratio is 2 : 1.
18. (OAVS TGT Mock) An element with atomic number 19 reacts with an element with atomic number 8. The formula and nature of bonding in the resulting compound are:
- A) K2O, Ionic
- B) KO2, Covalent
- C) K2O, Covalent
- D) KO, Ionic
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Correct Answer: A) K2O, Ionic
Explanation: Element Z=19 is Potassium (K, valency +1) and Z=8 is Oxygen (O, valency -2). Electrostatic transfer of electrons produces the ionic compound K2O.
19. (OAVS TGT Science PYQ) Saponification of fats and oils involves alkaline hydrolysis using sodium hydroxide, producing soap along with a valuable byproduct named:
- A) Ethylene glycol
- B) Glycerol
- C) Ethanol
- D) Methanol
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Correct Answer: B) Glycerol
Explanation: Triglycerides (esters of fatty acids) react with NaOH to yield sodium salts of fatty acids (soap) and glycerol (propane-1,2,3-triol) as a byproduct.
20. (OAVS TGT Mock) Aqua regia, which can dissolve noble metals like gold and platinum, is a freshly prepared mixture of:
- A) Concentrated HCl and concentrated HNO3 in a 3:1 ratio
- B) Concentrated HNO3 and concentrated HCl in a 3:1 ratio
- C) Concentrated H2SO4 and concentrated HNO3 in a 1:1 ratio
- D) Dilute HCl and dilute HNO3 in a 3:1 ratio
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Correct Answer: A) Concentrated HCl and concentrated HNO3 in a 3:1 ratio
Explanation: Aqua regia is composed of 3 parts concentrated hydrochloric acid and 1 part concentrated nitric acid by volume.
21. (OAVS TGT Science PYQ) Which of the following allotropes of carbon has a cage-like soccer ball structure composed of 60 carbon atoms?
- A) Diamond
- B) Graphite
- C) Buckminsterfullerene (C60)
- D) Carbon nanotube
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Correct Answer: C) Buckminsterfullerene (C60)
Explanation: Buckminsterfullerene (C60) consists of 60 carbon atoms arranged in 20 six-membered rings and 12 five-membered rings forming a truncated icosahedron (geodesic dome).
22. (OAVS TGT Mock) Baking powder used in baking cakes contains sodium hydrogen carbonate along with a mild edible acid such as:
- A) Hydrochloric acid
- B) Tartaric acid
- C) Nitric acid
- D) Oxalic acid
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Correct Answer: B) Tartaric acid
Explanation: Baking powder is a mixture of baking soda (NaHCO3) and solid tartaric acid. Tartaric acid neutralizes the bitter sodium carbonate produced on heating, releasing CO2 to make cakes spongy.
23. (OAVS TGT Science PYQ) An aqueous solution of copper sulphate (CuSO4) turns blue litmus red because it is:
- A) Salt of a strong acid (H2SO4) and weak base [Cu(OH)2]
- B) Salt of a weak acid and strong base
- C) Salt of a strong acid and strong base
- D) Completely neutral
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Correct Answer: A) Salt of a strong acid (H2SO4) and weak base [Cu(OH)2]
Explanation: In water, CuSO4 undergoes cationic hydrolysis: Cu2+ + 2H2O ➔ Cu(OH)2 + 2H+. The resulting excess hydrogen ions make the aqueous solution acidic (pH < 7).
24. (OAVS TGT Mock) Which of the following synthetic detergents is primarily responsible for preventing scum formation in hard water?
- A) Sodium stearate
- B) Sodium palmitate
- C) Sodium alkyl benzene sulphonate
- D) Potassium oleate
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Correct Answer: C) Sodium alkyl benzene sulphonate
Explanation: Synthetic detergents (like sodium alkyl benzene sulphonates) have calcium and magnesium salts that are water-soluble, meaning they do not produce insoluble curdy scum in hard water.
25. (OAVS TGT Science PYQ) What is the electronic configuration of chromium (Z = 24) in its ground state?
- A) [Ar] 4s2 3d4
- B) [Ar] 4s1 3d5
- C) [Ar] 4s0 3d6
- D) [Ar] 3d6
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Correct Answer: B) [Ar] 4s1 3d5
Explanation: Chromium has an anomalous ground state configuration of [Ar] 4s1 3d5 because half-filled d-subshells (d5) gain extra exchange energy and stability.
26. (OAVS TGT Mock) Galvanization is a method of protecting steel and iron from rusting by coating them with a thin layer of:
- A) Copper
- B) Zinc
- C) Aluminium
- D) Tin
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Correct Answer: B) Zinc
Explanation: Galvanization coats iron with molten zinc. Zinc oxidizes preferentially, providing sacrificial cathodic protection even if scratched.
27. (OAVS TGT Science PYQ) The shape of a water molecule (H2O) according to VSEPR theory is:
- A) Linear
- B) Bent / V-shaped
- C) Trigonal planar
- D) Tetrahedral
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Correct Answer: B) Bent / V-shaped
Explanation: The central oxygen atom has 2 bonding pairs and 2 lone pairs (sp3 hybridized). Lone pair-lone pair repulsion compresses the H-O-H bond angle to 104.5°, giving a bent or V-shaped molecular geometry.
28. (OAVS TGT Mock) Which indicator gives a pink colour in an alkaline medium and remains colourless in an acidic solution?
- A) Methyl orange
- B) Phenolphthalein
- C) Methyl red
- D) Litmus
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Correct Answer: B) Phenolphthalein
Explanation: Phenolphthalein is colourless in neutral and acidic solutions (pH < 8.2) and turns bright pink in basic solutions (pH 8.2–10.0).
29. (OAVS TGT Science PYQ) Cinnabar is an important natural ore of which metal?
- A) Lead
- B) Copper
- C) Mercury
- D) Zinc
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Correct Answer: C) Mercury
Explanation: Cinnabar is mercury(II) sulphide (HgS). On roasting in air, it converts to mercuric oxide and decomposes into liquid mercury metal.
30. (OAVS TGT Mock) Which of the following hydrocarbons undergoes an addition reaction with hydrogen in the presence of a nickel catalyst?
- A) C2H6
- B) C3H8
- C) CH4
- D) C3H6
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Correct Answer: D) C3H6
Explanation: Unsaturated hydrocarbons (alkenes and alkynes) with double or triple bonds undergo addition reactions. Propene (C3H6) adds hydrogen across its double bond to form propane (C3H8).
31. (OAVS TGT Science PYQ) Thermite welding used to join broken railway tracks relies on the reduction of iron(III) oxide using:
- A) Carbon monoxide
- B) Aluminium powder
- C) Magnesium ribbon
- D) Sodium metal
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Correct Answer: B) Aluminium powder
Explanation: The thermite reaction is: Fe2O3(s) + 2Al(s) ➔ 2Fe(l) + Al2O3(s) + Heat. Aluminium reduces iron(III) oxide, releasing sufficient heat to produce molten iron that welds the tracks.
32. (OAVS TGT Mock) What is the oxidation state of sulphur in the sulphate ion (SO4^2-)?
- A) +2
- B) +4
- C) +6
- D) -2
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Correct Answer: C) +6
Explanation: In SO4^2-, let oxidation state of sulphur be x. Oxygen is -2. Then x + 4(-2) = -2 ➔ x - 8 = -2 ➔ x = +6.
33. (OAVS TGT Science PYQ) Which of the following gas laws states that at constant temperature, the volume of a given mass of gas is inversely proportional to its pressure?
- A) Charles's Law
- B) Boyle's Law
- C) Gay-Lussac's Law
- D) Avogadro's Law
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Correct Answer: B) Boyle's Law
Explanation: Boyle's Law states that for a fixed amount of gas at constant temperature, P * V = constant (pressure and volume are inversely proportional).
34. (OAVS TGT Mock) Modern Periodic Law proposed by Henry Moseley states that physical and chemical properties of elements are periodic functions of their:
- A) Atomic weights
- B) Atomic numbers
- C) Mass numbers
- D) Densities
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Correct Answer: B) Atomic numbers
Explanation: Moseley showed that characteristic X-ray frequencies correlate with nuclear charge (atomic number Z), establishing that chemical properties depend on atomic number, not atomic mass.
35. (OAVS TGT Science PYQ) Washing soda has the chemical formula:
- A) NaHCO3
- B) Na2CO3 · 10H2O
- C) Na2CO3 · H2O
- D) NaOH
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Correct Answer: B) Na2CO3 · 10H2O
Explanation: Washing soda is sodium carbonate decahydrate: Na2CO3 · 10H2O. Baking soda is NaHCO3, and anhydrous Na2CO3 is soda ash.
36. (OAVS TGT Science PYQ) Which cellular organelle contains its own circular DNA and 70S ribosomes, supporting the endosymbiotic theory of eukaryotic origin?
- A) Golgi apparatus
- B) Mitochondria and Chloroplasts
- C) Endoplasmic reticulum
- D) Lysosomes
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Correct Answer: B) Mitochondria and Chloroplasts
Explanation: Both mitochondria and plastids/chloroplasts are semi-autonomous organelles containing their own naked circular double-stranded DNA and 70S prokaryotic-type ribosomes.
37. (OAVS TGT Mock) During light reactions of photosynthesis in green leaves, photolysis of water produces:
- A) Carbon dioxide, electrons, and ATP
- B) Protons (H+), electrons, and molecular oxygen (O2)
- C) Glucose and NADPH
- D) Water vapour and ozone
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Correct Answer: B) Protons (H+), electrons, and molecular oxygen (O2)
Explanation: The oxygen-evolving complex at Photosystem II splits water: 2H2O ➔ 4H+ + 4e- + O2. This reaction provides replacement electrons for P680 and releases atmospheric oxygen.
38. (OAVS TGT Science PYQ) The primary site of complete digestion of carbohydrates, proteins, and fats in the human digestive system is:
- A) Stomach
- B) Small intestine (Ileum)
- C) Large intestine (Colon)
- D) Duodenum only
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Correct Answer: B) Small intestine (Ileum)
Explanation: Intestinal juice (succus entericus) along with pancreatic and bile secretions completes the digestion of proteins into amino acids, complex carbohydrates into glucose, and fats into fatty acids and glycerol in the small intestine.
39. (OAVS TGT Mock) Translocation of synthesized photosynthates (sucrose) in higher vascular plants occurs through:
- A) Xylem vessels using passive transpiration pull
- B) Sieve tubes of phloem utilizing metabolic energy (ATP)
- C) Cambium parenchyma via simple osmosis
- D) Collenchyma bundles
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Correct Answer: B) Sieve tubes of phloem utilizing metabolic energy (ATP)
Explanation: Translocation of sucrose into companion cells and sieve tube elements is an active process requiring ATP, establishing an osmotic pressure gradient that drives mass flow.
40. (OAVS TGT Science PYQ) In human males, testes are situated outside the abdominal cavity within the scrotum because:
- A) It prevents mechanical injury during physical activity
- B) Spermatogenesis requires a temperature 2 to 2.5°C lower than core internal body temperature
- C) It provides direct connection to urinary bladder sphincters
- D) It facilitates faster secretion of testosterone
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Correct Answer: B) Spermatogenesis requires a temperature 2 to 2.5°C lower than core internal body temperature
Explanation: Normal viable sperm maturation (spermatogenesis) cannot occur at 37°C. The scrotum acts as a thermoregulator, maintaining testes 2 to 2.5°C below core body temperature.
41. (OAVS TGT Mock) Which region of the human nephron is primarily responsible for the facultative reabsorption of water under the influence of antidiuretic hormone (ADH)?
- A) Proximal convoluted tubule (PCT)
- B) Distal convoluted tubule (DCT) and Collecting duct
- C) Descending limb of loop of Henle
- D) Bowman's capsule
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Correct Answer: B) Distal convoluted tubule (DCT) and Collecting duct
Explanation: While obligatory reabsorption occurs in the PCT, conditional (facultative) water reabsorption is regulated by ADH (vasopressin) acting on the aquaporin channels of the DCT and collecting duct.
42. (OAVS TGT Science PYQ) A cross between two heterozygous pink-flowered Mirabilis jalapa plants yields red, pink, and white flowered progeny in the ratio 1:2:1. This is an example of:
- A) Complete dominance
- B) Incomplete dominance
- C) Codominance
- D) Epistasis
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Correct Answer: B) Incomplete dominance
Explanation: In incomplete dominance, neither allele is completely dominant over the other. The heterozygous genotype (Rr) exhibits an intermediate blending phenotype (pink), producing identical phenotypic and genotypic ratios of 1:2:1.
43. (OAVS TGT Mock) Which phase of meiosis is characterized by crossing over and reciprocal exchange of non-sister chromatid segments between homologous chromosomes?
- A) Leptotene
- B) Zygotene
- C) Pachytene
- D) Diplotene
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Correct Answer: C) Pachytene
Explanation: Crossing over is mediated by the enzyme recombinase during the Pachytene substage of Prophase I of meiosis.
44. (OAVS TGT Science PYQ) In the human heart, the natural pacemaker that initiates and regulates the rhythmic cardiac impulse is the:
- A) Atrioventricular (AV) node
- B) Sinoatrial (SA) node
- C) Bundle of His
- D) Purkinje fibres
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Correct Answer: B) Sinoatrial (SA) node
Explanation: The SA node in the upper wall of the right atrium generates action potentials at the highest intrinsic rate (70–75 beats/min) and functions as the primary pacemaker.
45. (OAVS TGT Mock) Which phytohormone is commonly known as the plant 'stress hormone' because it induces stomatal closure during severe drought?
- A) Indole-3-acetic acid (IAA)
- B) Gibberellic acid (GA3)
- C) Abscisic acid (ABA)
- D) Ethylene
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Correct Answer: C) Abscisic acid (ABA)
Explanation: Abscisic acid (ABA) increases under water stress, triggering an efflux of potassium ions from guard cells, which reduces turgor and rapidly closes the stomata to prevent transpirational water loss.
46. (OAVS TGT Science PYQ) The respiratory pigment in human blood, haemoglobin, binds reversibly with oxygen. How many molecules of O2 can one molecule of haemoglobin bind at saturation?
- A) 1
- B) 2
- C) 4
- D) 6
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Correct Answer: C) 4
Explanation: Haemoglobin is a tetrameric protein consisting of four polypeptide globin chains, each carrying an iron-containing haem moiety that binds one O2 molecule, for a total of 4 O2 molecules.
47. (OAVS TGT Mock) In plant taxonomy, bryophytes are referred to as the 'amphibians of the plant kingdom' because:
- A) They live entirely floating on ponds and streams
- B) They inhabit soil but depend on external water for swimming of flagellated antherozoids during fertilization
- C) They have true vascular tissues with tracheids and vessels
- D) They undergo both parasitic and saprophytic nutrition
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Correct Answer: B) They inhabit soil but depend on external water for swimming of flagellated antherozoids during fertilization
Explanation: Bryophytes (mosses and liverworts) grow on land in damp, shaded habitats, but their motile flagellated male gametes (antherozoids) require a thin film of water to swim to the archegonium for fertilization.
48. (OAVS TGT Science PYQ) The biological phenomenon wherein pesticide chemicals accumulate at progressively higher concentrations across successive trophic levels of an aquatic food chain is called:
- A) Eutrophication
- B) Biomagnification
- C) Biofortification
- D) Bioremediation
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Correct Answer: B) Biomagnification
Explanation: Non-biodegradable and lipophilic toxins like DDT and mercury cannot be metabolized or excreted, leading to progressive concentration increases up trophic levels, known as Biomagnification.
49. (OAVS TGT Mock) Which of the following is an example of an analogous organ pair?
- A) Forelimb of human and flipper of whale
- B) Wings of a bat and wings of a pigeon
- C) Tendril of pea and spine of barberry
- D) Foreleg of horse and arm of human
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Correct Answer: B) Wings of a bat and wings of a pigeon
Explanation: Bat wings (skin folds stretched between elongated fingers) and bird wings (feathers along the arm) have different anatomical origins and structural designs, but perform the same function (flying). They represent convergent evolution and are analogous.
50. (OAVS TGT Science PYQ) The structural polysaccharide present in plant primary cell walls is composed of beta-D-glucose units joined by:
- A) Alpha-1,4-glycosidic bonds
- B) Beta-1,4-glycosidic bonds
- C) Alpha-1,6-glycosidic bonds
- D) Phosphodiester bonds
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Correct Answer: B) Beta-1,4-glycosidic bonds
Explanation: Cellulose is a linear unbranched polymer of D-glucose linked by beta-1,4-glycosidic bonds. Starch and glycogen are held together by alpha linkages.
51. (OAVS TGT Mock) Which gland in the human body performs both endocrine and exocrine functions (heterocrine gland)?
- A) Thyroid gland
- B) Pancreas
- C) Pituitary gland
- D) Adrenal gland
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Correct Answer: B) Pancreas
Explanation: The pancreas secretes pancreatic digestive enzymes via ducts into the duodenum (exocrine function) and secretes insulin and glucagon directly into blood capillaries from the Islets of Langerhans (endocrine function).
52. (OAVS TGT Science PYQ) In human genetics, the sex of a newborn child is determined by:
- A) The sex chromosome inherited from the mother
- B) The sex chromosome (X or Y) inherited from the father
- C) Maternal nutritional levels during gestation
- D) Environmental temperature during fertilization
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Correct Answer: B) The sex chromosome (X or Y) inherited from the father
Explanation: Females are homogametic (XX), producing only X-bearing ova. Males are heterogametic (XY), producing 50% X and 50% Y sperm. Fertilization by an X sperm produces a female (XX); fertilization by a Y sperm produces a male (XY).
53. (OAVS TGT Mock) In the human ear, the organ of Corti, which contains auditory sensory hair cells, is located inside the:
- A) Tympanic membrane
- B) Cochlea
- C) Semicircular canals
- D) Eustachian tube
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Correct Answer: B) Cochlea
Explanation: The sensory organ of hearing is the organ of Corti, situated on the basilar membrane within the scala media of the fluid-filled cochlea.
54. (OAVS TGT Science PYQ) In flowering plants, which part of the carpel develops into the fruit wall (pericarp) after successful fertilization?
- A) Ovule integuments
- B) Ovary wall
- C) Style
- D) Thalamus
👉 Touch to Show Answer & Explanation
Correct Answer: B) Ovary wall
Explanation: Following double fertilization, the fertilized ovule develops into a seed, while the surrounding ovary wall thickens to form the pericarp (fruit wall).
55. (OAVS TGT Mock) Tendons connect:
- A) Bone to bone
- B) Skeletal muscle to bone
- C) Cartilage to muscle
- D) Nerve to muscle
👉 Touch to Show Answer & Explanation
Correct Answer: B) Skeletal muscle to bone
Explanation: Tendons are dense white fibrous collagenous connective tissues that attach skeletal muscles to bones. Ligaments connect bone to bone.
56. (OAVS TGT Science PYQ) Which of the following nitrogenous excretory wastes requires the minimum amount of water for its excretion and is excreted by birds and terrestrial reptiles?
- A) Ammonia
- B) Urea
- C) Uric acid
- D) Creatinine
👉 Touch to Show Answer & Explanation
Correct Answer: C) Uric acid
Explanation: Uric acid is the least toxic and least soluble nitrogenous waste, excreted as a semi-solid paste with minimal water loss in uricotelic animals (birds, reptiles, insects).
57. (OAVS TGT Mock) The causal organism of Crown Gall disease in dicotyledonous plants, widely utilized as a natural genetic engineer in biotechnology, is:
- A) Escherichia coli
- B) Agrobacterium tumefaciens
- C) Bacillus thuringiensis
- D) Rhizobium leguminosarum
👉 Touch to Show Answer & Explanation
Correct Answer: B) Agrobacterium tumefaciens
Explanation: Agrobacterium tumefaciens contains the Ti (tumour-inducing) plasmid, which naturally integrates a specific segment of T-DNA into the plant nuclear genome.
58. (OAVS TGT Science PYQ) Deficiency of which essential mineral in the human diet causes enlargement of the thyroid gland, clinically known as goitre?
- A) Iron
- B) Iodine
- C) Calcium
- D) Phosphorus
👉 Touch to Show Answer & Explanation
Correct Answer: B) Iodine
Explanation: Iodine is an essential component required for the synthesis of thyroxine (T4) and triiodothyronine (T3). Deficiency causes compensatory hyperplasia of the thyroid gland (simple endemic goitre).
59. (OAVS TGT Mock) Which of the following is a non-vascular embryophyte characterized by a dominant gametophytic generation and dependent sporophyte?
- A) Fern (Pteridophyte)
- B) Funaria (Moss / Bryophyte)
- C) Pinus (Gymnosperm)
- D) Mustard (Angiosperm)
👉 Touch to Show Answer & Explanation
Correct Answer: B) Funaria (Moss / Bryophyte)
Explanation: In bryophytes like Funaria, the independent, leafy photosynthetic plant is the haploid gametophyte, while the diploid sporophyte (foot, seta, capsule) is physically and nutritionally dependent on it.
60. (OAVS TGT Science PYQ) What is the function of the myelin sheath that covers axons in myelinated neurons?
- A) It synthesizes neurotransmitters like acetylcholine
- B) It acts as an electrical insulator, enabling rapid saltatory nerve impulse conduction
- C) It provides direct attachment for muscle tendons
- D) It generates ATP for neuroglia cells
👉 Touch to Show Answer & Explanation
Correct Answer: B) It acts as an electrical insulator, enabling rapid saltatory nerve impulse conduction
Explanation: The lipid-rich myelin sheath prevents ionic leakage across the axon membrane. Action potentials jump between adjacent nodes of Ranvier (saltatory conduction), accelerating impulse transmission.
61. (OAVS TGT Mock) During protein synthesis in cellular translation, the start codon that codes for methionine is:
- A) UAA
- B) AUG
- C) UGA
- D) UAG
👉 Touch to Show Answer & Explanation
Correct Answer: B) AUG
Explanation: AUG functions as the universal initiation (start) codon for translation and codes for the amino acid methionine. UAA, UAG, and UGA are stop (termination) codons.
62. (OAVS TGT Science PYQ) Which blood group is known as the universal recipient because individuals possess both A and B antigens on their red blood cells and lack anti-A and anti-B antibodies in plasma?
- A) Blood Group O positive
- B) Blood Group AB positive
- C) Blood Group A positive
- D) Blood Group B negative
👉 Touch to Show Answer & Explanation
Correct Answer: B) Blood Group AB positive
Explanation: Individuals with AB positive blood have A, B, and Rh antigens on their RBCs and have no antibodies against A, B, or Rh in their plasma, enabling them to safely receive blood of any ABO/Rh type.
63. (OAVS TGT Mock) Casparian strips are characteristic suberized impermeable bands found in the cell walls of plant:
- A) Epidermis
- B) Pericycle
- C) Endodermis
- D) Xylem parenchyma
👉 Touch to Show Answer & Explanation
Correct Answer: C) Endodermis
Explanation: The root endodermis has radial and tangential cell walls impregnated with suberin, forming Casparian strips that block the apoplastic pathway and force water through the symplast.
64. (OAVS TGT Science PYQ) In human females, ovulation (release of a secondary oocyte from a mature Graafian follicle) is triggered by a mid-cycle surge of which pituitary gonadotropin?
- A) Luteinizing Hormone (LH)
- B) Follicle Stimulating Hormone (FSH)
- C) Prolactin
- D) Oxytocin
👉 Touch to Show Answer & Explanation
Correct Answer: A) Luteinizing Hormone (LH)
Explanation: A rapid surge in Luteinizing Hormone (LH) around day 14 of the menstrual cycle triggers rupture of the Graafian follicle and releases the secondary oocyte.
65. (OAVS TGT Mock) Which part of the human eye regulates the amount of light entering the eye by adjusting pupil diameter?
- A) Cornea
- B) Iris
- C) Retina
- D) Sclera
👉 Touch to Show Answer & Explanation
Correct Answer: B) Iris
Explanation: The pigmented muscular Iris controls the diameter and size of the pupil via its circular sphincter and radial dilator muscles in response to light intensity.
66. (OAVS TGT Science PYQ) In an ecological pyramid of numbers, which of the following ecosystems exhibits an inverted pyramid?
- A) Grassland ecosystem
- B) Pond ecosystem
- C) Tree parasitic ecosystem
- D) Ocean ecosystem
👉 Touch to Show Answer & Explanation
Correct Answer: C) Tree parasitic ecosystem
Explanation: A single large producer (a tree) supports numerous herbivorous birds, which host hundreds of ectoparasitic lice and ticks, creating an inverted pyramid of numbers.
67. (OAVS TGT Mock) What is the primary respiratory substrate utilized during normal resting aerobic respiration in human tissue cells?
- A) Amino acids
- B) Glucose
- C) Triglycerides
- D) Nucleic acids
👉 Touch to Show Answer & Explanation
Correct Answer: B) Glucose
Explanation: Glucose is the primary monosaccharide substrate broken down during glycolysis to supply ATP under normal aerobic conditions.
68. (OAVS TGT Science PYQ) The symbiotic nitrogen-fixing bacterium Rhizobium forms functional root nodules in plants belonging to the family:
- A) Solanaceae
- B) Fabaceae (Leguminosae)
- C) Brassicaceae
- D) Poaceae
👉 Touch to Show Answer & Explanation
Correct Answer: B) Fabaceae (Leguminosae)
Explanation: Rhizobium leguminosarum establishes a mutualistic relationship with root hairs of leguminous plants (Fabaceae), producing nitrogenase to reduce atmospheric N2 into ammonia.
69. (OAVS TGT Mock) The hormone responsible for stimulating milk ejection (let-down reflex) from mammary glands during lactation is:
- A) Prolactin
- B) Oxytocin
- C) Estrogen
- D) Progesterone
👉 Touch to Show Answer & Explanation
Correct Answer: B) Oxytocin
Explanation: Prolactin stimulates milk synthesis and secretion, while Oxytocin (from the posterior pituitary) stimulates contraction of myoepithelial cells around mammary alveoli to eject milk.
70. (OAVS TGT Science PYQ) Which of the following is an example of an autosomal recessive genetic disorder in humans?
- A) Haemophilia
- B) Sickle-cell anaemia
- C) Colour blindness
- D) Down's syndrome
👉 Touch to Show Answer & Explanation
Correct Answer: B) Sickle-cell anaemia
Explanation: Sickle-cell anaemia is an autosomal recessive disorder caused by a point mutation (GAG to GUG) in codon 6 of the beta-globin gene on chromosome 11. Haemophilia and colour blindness are X-linked recessive, and Down's syndrome is an aneuploidy (trisomy 21).
71. (OAVS TGT Mock) In the cross-section of a typical dicot stem, the vascular bundles are arranged in a ring and are described as:
- A) Scattered, closed, and radial
- B) Conjoint, collateral, open, with endarch xylem
- C) Conjoint, collateral, closed, with exarch xylem
- D) Concentric and closed
👉 Touch to Show Answer & Explanation
Correct Answer: B) Conjoint, collateral, open, with endarch xylem
Explanation: Dicot stem vascular bundles are arranged in a ring; xylem and phloem lie on the same radius (conjoint, collateral), possess an intrafascicular cambium strip (open), and develop protoxylem toward the center (endarch).
72. (OAVS TGT Science PYQ) What type of epithelium lines the inner surface of the human fallopian tubes and bronchioles to move mucus and ova in a specific direction?
- A) Simple squamous epithelium
- B) Ciliated columnar epithelium
- C) Stratified squamous keratinized epithelium
- D) Transitional epithelium
👉 Touch to Show Answer & Explanation
Correct Answer: B) Ciliated columnar epithelium
Explanation: Ciliated epithelium bears motile cilia that beat in coordinated waves to move particles or mucus through the respiratory tract and propel the ovum through the fallopian tube.
73. (OAVS TGT Mock) Which cell organelle is responsible for synthesizing ribosomal RNA (rRNA) and assembling ribosomal subunits?
- A) Nucleolus
- B) Endoplasmic reticulum
- C) Centrosome
- D) Peroxisome
👉 Touch to Show Answer & Explanation
Correct Answer: A) Nucleolus
Explanation: The nucleolus is a non-membrane-bound region within the nucleus that transcribes ribosomal RNA (rRNA) and forms ribosomal subunits.
74. (OAVS TGT Science PYQ) According to the five-kingdom classification system proposed by R.H. Whittaker, unicellular eukaryotic organisms are placed in:
- A) Kingdom Monera
- B) Kingdom Protista
- C) Kingdom Fungi
- D) Kingdom Plantae
👉 Touch to Show Answer & Explanation
Correct Answer: B) Kingdom Protista
Explanation: Whittaker placed all unicellular eukaryotic organisms (Amoeba, Paramecium, Euglena, diatoms) in Kingdom Protista. Unicellular prokaryotes are placed in Kingdom Monera.
75. (OAVS TGT Mock) The vital capacity of human lungs is defined as the maximum volume of air a person can breathe in after a forced expiration. It is equal to:
- A) Tidal Volume + Residual Volume
- B) Tidal Volume + Inspiratory Reserve Volume + Expiratory Reserve Volume
- C) Total Lung Capacity - Tidal Volume
- D) Inspiratory Reserve Volume + Residual Volume
👉 Touch to Show Answer & Explanation
Correct Answer: B) Tidal Volume + Inspiratory Reserve Volume + Expiratory Reserve Volume
Explanation: Vital Capacity (VC) = TV + IRV + ERV (approx. 4,000 to 4,600 mL in an adult). Total Lung Capacity (TLC) equals VC plus Residual Volume (RV).
76. (OAVS Pedagogy PYQ) What is the main characteristic of the scientific method of inquiry?
- A) Unquestioning acceptance of historical facts
- B) Empirical observation, hypothesis formulation, controlled experimentation, and reproducible verification
- C) Reliance on authoritative personal opinions of scholars
- D) Rote memorization of textbook theories
👉 Touch to Show Answer & Explanation
Correct Answer: B) Empirical observation, hypothesis formulation, controlled experimentation, and reproducible verification
Explanation: The scientific method is characterized by systematic, verifiable, objective, and empirical approaches to gathering evidence and drawing testable conclusions.
77. (OAVS Pedagogy Mock) In the Revised Bloom's Taxonomy, which cognitive process is engaged when a student predicts the products of an unfamiliar chemical displacement reaction using the electrochemical series?
- A) Remembering
- B) Understanding
- C) Applying
- D) Evaluating
👉 Touch to Show Answer & Explanation
Correct Answer: C) Applying
Explanation: Applying involves implementing or executing learned principles, concepts, or rules in a concrete, unfamiliar situation.
78. (OAVS Pedagogy PYQ) Which stage of the 5E Instructional Model involves eliciting students' prior conceptual knowledge and identifying existing misconceptions through open-ended questions?
- A) Engage
- B) Explore
- C) Explain
- D) Elaborate
👉 Touch to Show Answer & Explanation
Correct Answer: A) Engage
Explanation: The Engage phase hooks student interest, taps into their prior knowledge, and surfaces pre-existing misconceptions through demonstration or guided questioning.
79. (OAVS Pedagogy Mock) The Heuristic Method of science teaching was originally developed and advocated by:
- A) John Dewey
- B) H.E. Armstrong
- C) W.H. Kilpatrick
- D) B.F. Skinner
👉 Touch to Show Answer & Explanation
Correct Answer: B) H.E. Armstrong
Explanation: Professor H.E. Armstrong introduced the Heuristic Method (from the Greek heuriskein, meaning 'to discover'), placing students in the role of independent discoverers.
80. (OAVS Pedagogy PYQ) A science test that yields consistent and dependable scores on repeated administrations under identical testing conditions possesses high:
- A) Validity
- B) Reliability
- C) Objectivity
- D) Usability
👉 Touch to Show Answer & Explanation
Correct Answer: B) Reliability
Explanation: Reliability measures consistency and repeatability. Validity refers to whether an assessment measures what it is designed to measure.
81. (OAVS Pedagogy Mock) Which of the following is considered an effective tool for Continuous and Comprehensive Evaluation (CCE) of affective domains in science?
- A) Terminal pen-and-paper examination
- B) Anecdotal records and observation checklists
- C) Standardized speed test
- D) Diagnostic error matrix
👉 Touch to Show Answer & Explanation
Correct Answer: B) Anecdotal records and observation checklists
Explanation: Affective dimensions—such as scientific curiosity, cooperation, and objectivity—are assessed using qualitative tools like anecdotal records, rating scales, and observation checklists.
82. (OAVS Pedagogy PYQ) In an inquiry-based science classroom, what is the primary role of student hypotheses?
- A) To serve as absolute, unchangeable facts
- B) To serve as tentative, testable explanations that guide data collection
- C) To be memorized before laboratory work
- D) To substitute for observational evidence
👉 Touch to Show Answer & Explanation
Correct Answer: B) To serve as tentative, testable explanations that guide data collection
Explanation: A hypothesis is a testable, provisional proposal that directs experimental design and empirical data collection.
83. (OAVS Pedagogy Mock) According to the National Curriculum Framework (NCF), science curricula at the secondary stage should focus on:
- A) Introducing specialized professional terminologies
- B) Engaging learners in inquiry, hands-on activities, and socio-scientific context
- C) Pure mathematical derivations without lab work
- D) Strict lecture delivery to complete textbook syllabi
👉 Touch to Show Answer & Explanation
Correct Answer: B) Engaging learners in inquiry, hands-on activities, and socio-scientific context
Explanation: NCF emphasizes pedagogical shift from rote learning toward hands-on inquiry, experiential learning, and critical thinking rooted in real-life contexts.
84. (OAVS Pedagogy PYQ) Which instructional method is best suited for demonstrating hazardous experiments, such as the reaction of metallic sodium with water?
- A) Individual student laboratory practical
- B) Teacher demonstration method with student observation
- C) Open discovery project
- D) Pure lecture without visuals
👉 Touch to Show Answer & Explanation
Correct Answer: B) Teacher demonstration method with student observation
Explanation: For hazardous or rapid exothermic reactions, the Teacher Demonstration method ensures safety while providing guided observations and discussion.
85. (OAVS Pedagogy Mock) When a teacher identifies that a majority of students confuse breathing with cellular respiration, the most appropriate immediate action is:
- A) Penalizing students in assessment marks
- B) Designing targeted diagnostic assessment and remedial conceptual activities
- C) Skipping the topic and proceeding to the next unit
- D) Rereading the textbook definition aloud once
👉 Touch to Show Answer & Explanation
Correct Answer: B) Designing targeted diagnostic assessment and remedial conceptual activities
Explanation: Addressing widespread misconceptions requires diagnostic analysis and targeted remedial instruction using contrasting demonstrations or conceptual organizers.
86. (OAVS Pedagogy PYQ) The Project Method in secondary science education is rooted in which philosophy of education?
- A) Idealism
- B) Pragmatism
- C) Naturalism
- D) Existentialism
👉 Touch to Show Answer & Explanation
Correct Answer: B) Pragmatism
Explanation: Formulated by William Heard Kilpatrick and based on John Dewey's educational philosophy, the Project Method is founded on Pragmatism ('learning by doing' through purposeful social tasks).
87. (OAVS Pedagogy Mock) Which of the following represents an open-ended divergent question in a secondary science classroom?
- A) What is the chemical formula of copper sulphate?
- B) Name the largest chamber of the human heart.
- C) What would happen to global ecosystems if all decomposers were eliminated?
- D) State the chemical equation for photosynthesis.
👉 Touch to Show Answer & Explanation
Correct Answer: C) What would happen to global ecosystems if all decomposers were eliminated?
Explanation: Divergent, open-ended questions require higher-order speculative reasoning and produce multiple valid perspectives, rather than single factual recall.
88. (OAVS Pedagogy PYQ) What is a 'Blue Print' in the context of designing an achievement test in secondary science?
- A) The physical design of the science laboratory
- B) A three-dimensional grid specifying weightage to objectives, content units, and question formats
- C) A list of roll numbers of examinees
- D) The teacher's personal evaluation diary
👉 Touch to Show Answer & Explanation
Correct Answer: B) A three-dimensional grid specifying weightage to objectives, content units, and question formats
Explanation: A test blueprint is a specifications grid ensuring balanced test construction across cognitive objectives, content domains, and item formats.
89. (OAVS Pedagogy Mock) The concept of 'Scaffolding' in the context of science learning is associated with which theorist?
- A) Jean Piaget
- B) Lev Vygotsky
- C) B.F. Skinner
- D) Edward Thorndike
👉 Touch to Show Answer & Explanation
Correct Answer: B) Lev Vygotsky
Explanation: Lev Vygotsky's socio-cultural theory emphasizes scaffolding—instructional support provided within a learner's Zone of Proximal Development (ZPD) to help them complete tasks beyond their unassisted ability.
90. (OAVS Pedagogy PYQ) Which of the following is a primary objective of organizing an annual Science Exhibition in secondary schools?
- A) Ranking students based on rote memory
- B) Providing a creative platform for students to apply scientific principles and develop inventive skills
- C) Generating commercial profits for the school
- D) Reducing classroom teaching time
👉 Touch to Show Answer & Explanation
Correct Answer: B) Providing a creative platform for students to apply scientific principles and develop inventive skills
Explanation: Science fairs and exhibitions provide opportunities for experiential inquiry, scientific creativity, hands-on model design, and public presentation.
91. (OAVS Pedagogy Mock) Formative Assessment in science education is characterized by:
- A) Grading at the end of an academic year
- B) Continuous diagnostic feedback during instruction to improve ongoing teaching and learning
- C) Selecting students for competitive scholarship rewards
- D) Pass-fail certification
👉 Touch to Show Answer & Explanation
Correct Answer: B) Continuous diagnostic feedback during instruction to improve ongoing teaching and learning
Explanation: Formative assessment (assessment for learning) occurs during instruction to provide ongoing diagnostic feedback, rather than assigning terminal summative scores.
92. (OAVS Pedagogy PYQ) What is a 'Discrepant Event' in secondary science pedagogy?
- A) A disciplinary breach during class
- B) An experimental demonstration that yields an outcome contradicting intuitive expectations, stimulating inquiry
- C) An unannounced pen-and-paper quiz
- D) An error made in the school timetable
👉 Touch to Show Answer & Explanation
Correct Answer: B) An experimental demonstration that yields an outcome contradicting intuitive expectations, stimulating inquiry
Explanation: A discrepant event generates an outcome that conflicts with intuitive common sense (producing cognitive dissonance), prompting students to investigate and reconcile the anomaly.
93. (OAVS Pedagogy Mock) Which of the following is an example of an authentic performance task in secondary life sciences?
- A) Answering 20 multiple choice questions about pollution
- B) Testing water quality samples from a local stream, analyzing coliform levels, and presenting a mitigation report to community leaders
- C) Memorizing the classification table of Kingdom Fungi
- D) Copying diagrams of the human digestive system from a textbook
👉 Touch to Show Answer & Explanation
Correct Answer: B) Testing water quality samples from a local stream, analyzing coliform levels, and presenting a mitigation report to community leaders
Explanation: Authentic assessment requires applying scientific skills to real-world tasks and meaningful problems outside of traditional testing formats.
94. (OAVS Pedagogy PYQ) According to Jean Piaget's stages of cognitive development, most secondary school students (aged 11 to 16 years) transition into the:
- A) Sensorimotor stage
- B) Pre-operational stage
- C) Concrete operational stage
- D) Formal operational stage
👉 Touch to Show Answer & Explanation
Correct Answer: D) Formal operational stage
Explanation: In the Formal Operational stage (ages 11–12 and above), adolescents develop the capacity for abstract thought, hypothetico-deductive reasoning, and systematic variable isolation.
95. (OAVS Pedagogy Mock) Which component of a unit plan identifies the specific, measurable behavioral outcomes expected from students upon completing the unit?
- A) Content outline
- B) Instructional objectives
- C) List of laboratory glassware
- D) Classroom layout chart
👉 Touch to Show Answer & Explanation
Correct Answer: B) Instructional objectives
Explanation: Instructional objectives state the observable, measurable competencies, knowledge, and process skills students are expected to demonstrate following instruction.
96. (OAVS Pedagogy PYQ) When using ICT tools in science teaching, virtual simulations and digital interactive labs are most useful because they:
- A) Eliminate the need for professional science teachers
- B) Allow students to visualize abstract molecular phenomena and safely simulate hazardous or time-consuming experiments
- C) Replace all physical laboratory infrastructure
- D) Force students to memorize textbook paragraphs
👉 Touch to Show Answer & Explanation
Correct Answer: B) Allow students to visualize abstract molecular phenomena and safely simulate hazardous or time-consuming experiments
Explanation: Digital simulations (such as PhET) model dynamic, abstract phenomena (e.g., molecular collisions, chemical equilibrium, nuclear decay) that cannot be directly observed or safely conducted in school labs.
97. (OAVS Pedagogy Mock) In evaluating scientific inquiry skills, a scoring guide that specifies performance criteria and achievement levels across defined dimensions is called a:
- A) Diagnostic register
- B) Rubric
- C) Report card
- D) Syllabus index
👉 Touch to Show Answer & Explanation
Correct Answer: B) Rubric
Explanation: A rubric is a scoring guide used to assess student performance against clear criteria, with descriptive indicators for each level of mastery.
98. (OAVS Pedagogy PYQ) Which of the following activities best promotes the development of scientific attitude among secondary school students?
- A) Blindly following experimental steps without questioning anomalies
- B) Encouraging students to evaluate evidence, test alternative hypotheses, and suspend judgment until data is verified
- C) Relying on traditional folklore to explain natural phenomena
- D) Rewarding students who memorize textbook definitions without understanding
👉 Touch to Show Answer & Explanation
Correct Answer: B) Encouraging students to evaluate evidence, test alternative hypotheses, and suspend judgment until data is verified
Explanation: A scientific attitude involves open-mindedness, skepticism, curiosity, intellectual honesty, reliance on empirical proof, and suspended judgment.
99. (OAVS Pedagogy Mock) A science teacher provides structured prompts and guided questions to help students solve a complex stoichiometric problem, gradually withdrawing assistance as competence develops. This instructional technique is an example of:
- A) Direct lecturing
- B) Scaffolding
- C) Rote drill
- D) Negative reinforcement
👉 Touch to Show Answer & Explanation
Correct Answer: B) Scaffolding
Explanation: Scaffolding provides temporary structural support that is gradually dismantled as learners gain competence and independence.
100. (OAVS Pedagogy PYQ) What is the primary purpose of writing instructional objectives in behavioral (performance) terms during lesson planning?
- A) To satisfy administrative paperwork requirements
- B) To clearly define what the learner will be able to do, observe, and measure at the end of the lesson
- C) To describe the personal biography of the teacher
- D) To list all textbook chapter headings
👉 Touch to Show Answer & Explanation
Correct Answer: B) To clearly define what the learner will be able to do, observe, and measure at the end of the lesson
Explanation: Behavioral objectives (using action verbs such as identify, differentiate, calculate, predict) describe observable and measurable changes in student learning, providing clear criteria for assessment.