Sunday, 13 September 2026

50 English grammar MCQs for Odisha Police Si & competitive exams

50 English grammar MCQs for competitive exams with Kumar EduWorld


Kumar EduWorld

English Proficiency Quiz

50 curated MCQs with instant feedback & grammar notes.

⏱ 15s per question
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💡 Detailed hints

Kumar EduWorld - 50 English Practice MCQs

Tap "Show Answer & Explanation" under each question to verify your answers.

1. Neither the teacher nor the students ______ present in the auditorium.

  • A) was
  • B) were
  • C) is
  • D) has been
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: B) were

Explanation: When joined by "neither... nor", the verb agrees with the closer subject ("students", plural).

2. She has been suffering from fever ______ Monday.

  • A) for
  • B) since
  • C) from
  • D) in
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: B) since

Explanation: "Since" is used to refer to a specific starting point in time.

3. If he ______ hard, he would have cleared the examination.

  • A) worked
  • B) had worked
  • C) would work
  • D) has worked
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: B) had worked

Explanation: Third conditional rule: If + past perfect (had worked) ... would have + past participle.

4. Scarcely had she stepped out ______ the torrential rain started.

  • A) than
  • B) when
  • C) then
  • D) that
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: B) when

Explanation: "Scarcely" and "Hardly" are always followed by "when".

5. Choose the correct synonym of 'EPHEMERAL':

  • A) Eternal
  • B) Fleeting
  • C) Monumental
  • D) Resilient
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: B) Fleeting

Explanation: "Ephemeral" means lasting for a very short duration; fleeting.

6. Seldom ______ such extraordinary dedication in modern athletics.

  • A) we see
  • B) have we seen
  • C) we have seen
  • D) we saw
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: B) have we seen

Explanation: When negative or restrictive adverbs like "seldom" begin a clause, subject-auxiliary inversion is used.

7. A person who is indifferent to both pain and pleasure is called:

  • A) Stoic
  • B) Epicurean
  • C) Cynic
  • D) Hedonist
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: A) Stoic

Explanation: A stoic accepts pain or difficulty calmly without complaint or emotion.

8. The fire department worked tirelessly to ______ the raging blaze.

  • A) put out
  • B) put off
  • C) put up
  • D) put down
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: A) put out

Explanation: "Put out" means to extinguish a flame or fire.

9. To 'burn the midnight oil' means:

  • A) To waste fuel carelessly
  • B) To work or study late into the night
  • C) To cause friction among colleagues
  • D) To celebrate until dawn
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: B) To work or study late into the night

Explanation: Refers historically to burning oil lamps to study late at night.

10. Ten miles ______ a long distance to travel on foot.

  • A) are
  • B) is
  • C) were
  • D) have been
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: B) is

Explanation: Quantities of distance, money, or duration considered as a single unit take singular verbs.

11. Choose the correct antonym of 'CANDID':

  • A) Outspoken
  • B) Frank
  • C) Deceitful
  • D) Honest
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: C) Deceitful

Explanation: "Candid" means truthful and straightforward; its direct antonym is deceitful.

12. No sooner had the bell rung ______ the students rushed out.

  • A) when
  • B) than
  • C) then
  • D) before
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: B) than

Explanation: "No sooner" pairs with "than".

13. The committee is composed ______ seven distinguished scholars.

  • A) of
  • B) with
  • C) from
  • D) by
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: A) of

Explanation: "Composed" takes the preposition "of".

14. I wish I ______ the courage to speak up at the summit yesterday.

  • A) have
  • B) had had
  • C) had
  • D) would have
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: B) had had

Explanation: Past regrets with "wish" require past perfect (had + had).

15. One who compiles a dictionary is called a:

  • A) Calligrapher
  • B) Cartographer
  • C) Lexicographer
  • D) Bibliophile
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: C) Lexicographer

Explanation: A lexicographer compiles and edits dictionaries.

16. The phrase 'a blessing in disguise' signifies:

  • A) An apparent misfortune that brings good results
  • B) A sacred ceremony
  • C) An act of secret sabotage
  • D) A deceptive appearance
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: A) An apparent misfortune that brings good results

Explanation: Something that appears unfortunate at first but ends up producing a favorable outcome.

17. She is remarkably proficient ______ computational linguistics.

  • A) at
  • B) in
  • C) on
  • D) with
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: B) in

Explanation: One is "proficient in" a language, discipline, or field of study.

18. The jury ______ divided in their opinions regarding the verdict.

  • A) was
  • B) were
  • C) is
  • D) has been
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: B) were

Explanation: When members of a collective noun have differing opinions, plural verbs are used.

19. What is the synonym of 'METICULOUS'?

  • A) Careless
  • B) Painstaking
  • C) Swift
  • D) Superficial
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: B) Painstaking

Explanation: "Meticulous" means showing great attention to detail; painstaking.

20. If I ______ an avian creature, I would traverse the continents.

  • A) was
  • B) were
  • C) am
  • D) have been
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: B) were

Explanation: Subjunctive mood uses "were" for hypothetical/unreal conditions.

21. A cure or remedy for all diseases is termed a:

  • A) Panacea
  • B) Elixir
  • C) Nostrum
  • D) Placebo
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: A) Panacea

Explanation: A panacea is a universal remedy purported to heal any ailment.

22. He was accused ______ embezzling organizational funds.

  • A) for
  • B) of
  • C) with
  • D) on
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: B) of

Explanation: "Accused" always pairs with the preposition "of".

23. The quality of these hand-woven tapestries ______ outstanding.

  • A) are
  • B) is
  • C) were
  • D) have been
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: B) is

Explanation: The actual subject is "quality" (singular), not the modifier "tapestries".

24. Lest you ______ lose your bearings, keep the compass accessible.

  • A) would
  • B) should
  • C) might
  • D) could
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: B) should

Explanation: "Lest" is properly followed by "should" or a bare subjunctive verb.

25. What is the antonym of 'TRANSIENT'?

  • A) Temporary
  • B) Permanent
  • C) Fugitive
  • D) Volatile
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: B) Permanent

Explanation: "Transient" means temporary and fleeting; "permanent" is its opposite.

26. Not only did she compose the symphony, ______ conducted the orchestra.

  • A) also she
  • B) but she also
  • C) and also
  • D) yet she
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: B) but she also

Explanation: The correlative conjunction pair is "Not only ... but also".

27. What does 'once in a blue moon' mean?

  • A) Periodically every month
  • B) Extremely rarely
  • C) During nighttime storms
  • D) Under favorable conditions
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: B) Extremely rarely

Explanation: Refers to an event that occurs very infrequently.

28. Her novel research paper is superior ______ all prior publications.

  • A) than
  • B) to
  • C) from
  • D) over
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: B) to

Explanation: Latin comparatives (superior, inferior, senior, junior) take "to", not "than".

29. A speech delivered without any prior preparation is:

  • A) Extempore
  • B) Maiden
  • C) Rhetoric
  • D) Eulogy
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: A) Extempore

Explanation: An extempore or impromptu speech is given without prior rehearsal.

30. You must ______ these complex instructions before operating the machinery.

  • A) look through
  • B) look over
  • C) look into
  • D) look after
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: B) look over

Explanation: "Look over" means to review, read, or examine thoroughly.

31. Each of the visiting dignitaries ______ presented with a citation.

  • A) was
  • B) were
  • C) are
  • D) have been
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: A) was

Explanation: "Each" is an indefinite singular pronoun that takes a singular verb.

32. Choose the synonym for 'PRAGMATIC':

  • A) Idealistic
  • B) Practical
  • C) Visionary
  • D) Theoretical
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: B) Practical

Explanation: "Pragmatic" means guided by practical outcomes rather than theory.

33. To 'leave no stone unturned' signifies:

  • A) To search or attempt every possible means
  • B) To construct a foundation
  • C) To cause widespread destruction
  • D) To abandon an enterprise midway
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: A) To search or attempt every possible means

Explanation: Means to try every feasible method to achieve an objective.

34. Rarely ______ an orator of such profound conviction and charisma.

  • A) does one encounter
  • B) one encounters
  • C) one had encountered
  • D) one encountered
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: A) does one encounter

Explanation: Fronted negative adverbs ("Rarely") require auxiliary inversion.

35. He is completely blind ______ the shortcomings of his only son.

  • A) with
  • B) to
  • C) of
  • D) at
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: B) to

Explanation: "Blind to" indicates unwilling or unable to perceive faults or facts.

36. Identify the antonym of 'OBSTINATE':

  • A) Stubborn
  • B) Flexible
  • C) Tenacious
  • D) Dogged
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: B) Flexible

Explanation: "Obstinate" means stubborn and unyielding; "flexible" is its antonym.

37. Had you apprised me earlier, I ______ the essential arrangements.

  • A) will make
  • B) would make
  • C) would have made
  • D) had made
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: C) would have made

Explanation: Inverted third conditional (Had you + past participle) takes "would have + past participle".

38. The murder or killing of one's own brother is known as:

  • A) Patricide
  • B) Fratricide
  • C) Regicide
  • D) Homicide
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: B) Fratricide

Explanation: "Frater" (brother) + "cide" (killing) = Fratricide.

39. What is the meaning of the idiom 'spill the beans'?

  • A) To reveal a secret indiscreetly
  • B) To waste nutritious food
  • C) To prepare a banquet
  • D) To ruin a garden
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: A) To reveal a secret indiscreetly

Explanation: Means to disclose confidential information prematurely.

40. You ______ maintain discretion; disclosure could jeopardize the mission.

  • A) ought
  • B) must
  • C) shall
  • D) can
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: B) must

Explanation: "Must" conveys essential obligation and imperative necessity.

41. Bread and butter ______ their staple morning breakfast.

  • A) is
  • B) are
  • C) were
  • D) have been
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: A) is

Explanation: Two nouns expressing a single unified meal take a singular verb.

42. What is the closest synonym of 'UBIQUITOUS'?

  • A) Omnipresent
  • B) Scarce
  • C) Hidden
  • D) Exceptional
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: A) Omnipresent

Explanation: "Ubiquitous" means present or appearing everywhere simultaneously.

43. This is the identical artifact ______ was discovered in Mohenjo-daro.

  • A) who
  • B) that
  • C) which
  • D) whom
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: B) that

Explanation: Clauses qualifying "the same" or "the identical" take the pronoun "that".

44. He died ______ acute myocardial infarction.

  • A) from
  • B) of
  • C) by
  • D) with
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: B) of

Explanation: One dies "of" an illness or disease, but "from" an external cause (e.g. overwork, hunger).

45. A lover and collector of printed books is called a:

  • A) Polyglot
  • B) Bibliophile
  • C) Philatelist
  • D) Numismatist
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: B) Bibliophile

Explanation: "Biblio" (book) + "phile" (lover) = Bibliophile.

46. Choose the correct antonym of 'GARRULOUS':

  • A) Loquacious
  • B) Reticent
  • C) Voluble
  • D) Talkative
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: B) Reticent

Explanation: "Garrulous" means excessively chatty; "reticent" means quiet and reserved.

47. I prefer green tea ______ processed sugary beverages.

  • A) than
  • B) to
  • C) over
  • D) instead
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: B) to

Explanation: The verb "prefer" is used with the preposition "to".

48. The idiom 'to hit the nail on the head' means:

  • A) To complete a carpentry task
  • B) To describe exactly what is causing a situation
  • C) To incur a severe physical injury
  • D) To resolve an dispute through force
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: B) To describe exactly what is causing a situation

Explanation: Refers to pinpointing the exact issue or being completely accurate.

49. It is imperative that the envoy ______ present during treaty signings.

  • A) is
  • B) be
  • C) was
  • D) will be
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: B) be

Explanation: Mandative subjunctive demands the bare root form "be" after expressions of urgency.

50. A large flock of migratory birds ______ observed heading south.

  • A) were
  • B) was
  • C) have been
  • D) are
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: B) was

Explanation: The subject is the singular collective unit "flock", so it takes "was".

Odisha SSB TGT (CBZ) – Mock Test 4

Odisha SSB TGT (CBZ) – Mock Test 4

Higher Difficulty Level (SSB TGT Pattern)

Total Questions: 100 | Total Marks: 150 | Time: 2 Hours




BOTANY (Questions 1–28)

Plant Cell Biology & Molecular Biology


1. The middle lamella of plant cells is mainly composed of:


A. Cellulose

B. Calcium pectate

C. Lignin

D. Suberin


2. The fluid mosaic model of plasma membrane was proposed by:


A. Watson and Crick

B. Singer and Nicolson

C. Schleiden and Schwann

D. Robertson


3. The site of ribosomal RNA synthesis in the nucleus is:


A. Nucleoplasm

B. Nuclear membrane

C. Nucleolus

D. Chromatin


4. A semi-autonomous organelle of plant cell is:


A. Golgi body

B. Lysosome

C. Chloroplast

D. Vacuole


5. The enzyme responsible for DNA replication is:


A. DNA polymerase

B. RNA polymerase

C. Ligase

D. Helicase only

Genetics


6. Mendel's law of independent assortment is applicable when genes are located:


A. On the same chromosome

B. On different chromosomes

C. Only in mitochondria

D. In ribosomes


7. The phenotypic ratio of a dihybrid cross is:


A. 3:1

B. 1:2:1

C. 9:3:3:1

D. 1:1


8. Incomplete dominance was first reported in:


A. Pea

B. Snapdragon

C. Maize

D. Drosophila


9. The enzyme that joins Okazaki fragments is:


A. Helicase

B. DNA ligase

C. Primase

D. Topoisomerase


10. The genetic code is:


A. Doublet

B. Triplet

C. Singlet

D. Quartet

Plant Physiology


11. Water potential of pure water is:


A. Positive

B. Zero

C. Negative

D. Infinite


12. Opening of stomata occurs due to:


A. Loss of potassium ions from guard cells

B. Entry of potassium ions into guard cells

C. Loss of water from guard cells

D. Death of guard cells


13. Transpiration is maximum through:


A. Cuticle

B. Stomata

C. Lenticels

D. Roots


14. Photorespiration involves:


A. Chloroplast only

B. Mitochondria only

C. Chloroplast, peroxisome and mitochondria

D. Cytoplasm only


15. The primary CO₂ acceptor in C₄ plants is:


A. RuBP

B. PEP

C. PGA

D. OAA

Plant Anatomy & Reproduction


16. Vascular cambium produces:


A. Primary xylem only

B. Secondary xylem and phloem

C. Epidermis

D. Cortex


17. Companion cells are associated with:


A. Xylem

B. Phloem

C. Collenchyma

D. Sclerenchyma


18. The protective covering of seed is:


A. Nucellus

B. Testa

C. Endosperm

D. Embryo


19. Double fertilization is found in:


A. Gymnosperms

B. Angiosperms

C. Bryophytes

D. Pteridophytes


20. Endosperm in angiosperms is generally:


A. Haploid

B. Diploid

C. Triploid

D. Tetraploid

Ecology & Biotechnology


21. Nitrogen fixation in leguminous plants occurs due to:


A. Azotobacter

B. Rhizobium

C. Nostoc

D. Lactobacillus


22. The pioneer species in xerarch succession are:


A. Mosses

B. Lichens

C. Grasses

D. Trees


23. The Red Data Book contains information about:


A. Common plants

B. Endangered species

C. Medicinal plants only

D. Crop plants


24. PCR requires:


A. DNA polymerase

B. RNA polymerase

C. Lipase

D. Amylase


25. Bt toxin is produced by:


A. Bacillus thuringiensis

B. Agrobacterium

C. Rhizobium

D. E.coli


26. Golden rice is genetically modified to produce:


A. Vitamin A precursor

B. Vitamin C

C. Protein

D. Iron only


27. The basic unit of ecology is:


A. Population

B. Community

C. Ecosystem

D. Biosphere


28. The process of development of plants from meristematic cells is:


A. Differentiation

B. Dedifferentiation

C. Redifferentiation

D. All of these


Q. No.

Answer

Q. No.

Answer

Q. No.

Answer

Q. No.

Answer

1

B

8

B

15

B

22

B

2

B

9

B

16

B

23

B

3

C

10

B

17

B

24

A

4

C

11

B

18

B

25

A

5

A

12

B

19

B

26

A

6

B

13

B

20

C

27

C

7

C

14

C

21

B

28

D



ZOOLOGY (Questions 29–56)

Human Physiology, Genetics, Evolution & Ecology

Human Physiology


29. The respiratory pigment present in human blood is:


A. Myoglobin

B. Haemoglobin

C. Haemocyanin

D. Chlorocruorin


30. The exchange of gases in lungs occurs through:


A. Active transport

B. Diffusion

C. Osmosis

D. Filtration


31. The functional unit of the kidney is:


A. Neuron

B. Nephron

C. Alveolus

D. Sarcomere


32. Ultrafiltration of blood occurs in:


A. Loop of Henle

B. Glomerulus

C. Collecting duct

D. Distal tubule


33. ADH hormone increases:


A. Glucose absorption

B. Water reabsorption

C. Protein synthesis

D. RBC formation


34. The pacemaker of human heart is:


A. AV node

B. SA node

C. Bundle of His

D. Purkinje fibres


35. The largest artery in the human body is:


A. Pulmonary artery

B. Aorta

C. Coronary artery

D. Carotid artery

Digestive System


36. The enzyme pepsin acts on:


A. Carbohydrates

B. Proteins

C. Fats

D. Vitamins


37. Bile juice is produced by:


A. Pancreas

B. Liver

C. Gall bladder

D. Stomach


38. The absorption of nutrients mainly occurs in:


A. Stomach

B. Small intestine

C. Large intestine

D. Rectum

Nervous System


39. The structural and functional unit of nervous system is:


A. Nephron

B. Neuron

C. Axon

D. Synapse


40. The part of brain responsible for balance and posture is:


A. Cerebrum

B. Cerebellum

C. Medulla

D. Hypothalamus


41. Reflex action is controlled mainly by:


A. Brain

B. Spinal cord

C. Cerebellum

D. Thalamus

Endocrine System


42. Insulin is secreted by:


A. Alpha cells

B. Beta cells

C. Delta cells

D. Acinar cells


43. The master gland of endocrine system is:


A. Thyroid

B. Pituitary

C. Adrenal

D. Pineal


44. Deficiency of thyroxine causes:


A. Diabetes

B. Goitre

C. Anaemia

D. Rickets

Reproduction


45. Testosterone is produced by:


A. Sertoli cells

B. Leydig cells

C. Ovum

D. Placenta


46. Fertilization in humans occurs in:


A. Ovary

B. Uterus

C. Fallopian tube

D. Cervix


47. Placenta helps in:


A. Digestion

B. Exchange of materials between mother and foetus

C. Production of RBC only

D. Formation of sperm

Genetics & Molecular Biology


48. DNA double helix model was proposed by:


A. Watson and Crick

B. Mendel

C. Darwin

D. Morgan


49. The process of conversion of DNA information into RNA is:


A. Translation

B. Transcription

C. Replication

D. Mutation


50. The codon is present on:


A. tRNA

B. mRNA

C. rRNA

D. DNA polymerase

Evolution


51. Natural selection theory was proposed by:


A. Lamarck

B. Darwin

C. Mendel

D. De Vries


52. Homologous organs indicate:


A. Convergent evolution

B. Divergent evolution

C. Mutation

D. Artificial selection

Ecology & Environment


53. The first trophic level is occupied by:


A. Consumers

B. Producers

C. Decomposers

D. Carnivores


54. Energy flow in an ecosystem is:


A. Cyclic

B. One directional

C. Random

D. Reversible


55. The major cause of ozone depletion is:


A. CO₂

B. CFCs

C. SO₂

D. Methane


56. Organisms that break down dead organic matter are:


A. Producers

B. Consumers

C. Decomposers

D. Parasites


Q. No.

Answer

Q. No.

Answer

Q. No.

Answer

Q. No.

Answer

29

B

36

B

43

B

50

B

30

B

37

B

44

B

51

B

31

B

38

B

45

B

52

B

32

B

39

B

46

C

53

B

33

B

40

B

47

B

54

B

34

B

41

B

48

A

55

B

35

B

42

B

49

B

56

C



CHEMISTRY (Questions 57–84)

Physical Chemistry, Inorganic Chemistry, Organic Chemistry & Environmental Chemistry

Physical Chemistry


57. The SI unit of amount of substance is:


A. Gram

B. Mole

C. Kilogram

D. Litre


58. Avogadro number represents:


A. Number of atoms in 1 gram

B. Number of particles in one mole

C. Number of electrons in hydrogen

D. Number of molecules in one litre gas


59. The value of gas constant (R) in SI unit is:


A. 8.314 J mol⁻¹ K⁻¹

B. 22.4 L atm

C. 1.987 cal

D. 760 mm Hg


60. A solution with pH 3 is:


A. Neutral

B. Acidic

C. Basic

D. Salt solution


61. The rate constant of a reaction depends on:


A. Concentration

B. Temperature

C. Amount of reactant

D. Volume only


62. The energy required to start a chemical reaction is called:


A. Ionization energy

B. Activation energy

C. Bond energy

D. Kinetic energy


63. Which law states that volume of a gas is directly proportional to temperature at constant pressure?


A. Boyle's law

B. Charles' law

C. Dalton's law

D. Henry's law

Inorganic Chemistry


64. The electronic configuration of sodium (Na) is:


A. 2,8,1

B. 2,8,2

C. 2,7,1

D. 2,6,3


65. The most electronegative element is:


A. Oxygen

B. Fluorine

C. Chlorine

D. Nitrogen


66. The oxidation state of oxygen in H₂O₂ is:


A. –2

B. –1

C. +1

D. +2


67. The ore of aluminium is:


A. Haematite

B. Bauxite

C. Galena

D. Cinnabar


68. The process used for concentration of sulphide ores is:


A. Magnetic separation

B. Froth flotation

C. Leaching

D. Distillation


69. Which metal is stored under kerosene?


A. Copper

B. Sodium

C. Iron

D. Aluminium


70. The alloy brass contains:


A. Copper and zinc

B. Copper and tin

C. Iron and carbon

D. Aluminium and copper

Organic Chemistry


71. The functional group of alcohol is:


A. –CHO

B. –OH

C. –COOH

D. –NH₂


72. The IUPAC name of CH₃CH₂OH is:


A. Methanol

B. Ethanol

C. Propanol

D. Ethanal


73. The hybridization of carbon in methane is:


A. sp

B. sp²

C. sp³

D. sp³d


74. Benzene undergoes mainly:


A. Addition reaction

B. Substitution reaction

C. Elimination reaction

D. Redox reaction


75. Proteins are polymers of:


A. Fatty acids

B. Amino acids

C. Nucleotides

D. Glucose


76. Nylon is an example of:


A. Natural polymer

B. Synthetic polymer

C. Protein

D. Carbohydrate


77. Methane is also known as:


A. Marsh gas

B. Laughing gas

C. Water gas

D. Producer gas

Environmental Chemistry


78. The main gas responsible for global warming is:


A. Oxygen

B. Carbon dioxide

C. Nitrogen

D. Hydrogen


79. Acid rain is mainly caused by:


A. SO₂ and NOₓ

B. CO₂ only

C. O₂

D. H₂


80. The ozone layer protects Earth from:


A. Infrared rays

B. UV radiation

C. Radio waves

D. Visible light

Applied Chemistry


81. The chemical formula of ammonia is:


A. NH₃

B. NO₂

C. N₂O

D. NH₄Cl


82. The catalyst used in Haber process is:


A. Nickel

B. Iron

C. Platinum

D. Copper


83. The bleaching action of chlorine is due to:


A. Reduction

B. Oxidation

C. Neutralization

D. Hydrolysis


84. Rusting of iron is an example of:


A. Reduction

B. Oxidation

C. Sublimation

D. Neutralization



Q. No.

Answer

Q. No.

Answer

Q. No.

Answer

Q. No.

Answer

57

B

64

A

71

B

78

B

58

B

65

B

72

B

79

A

59

A

66

B

73

C

80

B

60

B

67

B

74

B

81

A

61

B

68

B

75

B

82

B

62

B

69

B

76

B

83

B

63

B

70

A

77

A

84

B



PEDAGOGY & EVALUATION (Questions 85–100)

Educational Psychology, Teaching Methodology, Assessment, Inclusive Education & NEP 2020

Educational Psychology


85. According to Piaget, the ability of logical thinking about concrete objects develops during:


A. Sensorimotor stage

B. Pre-operational stage

C. Concrete operational stage

D. Formal operational stage


86. The theory of social constructivism was proposed by:


A. Skinner

B. Vygotsky

C. Pavlov

D. Thorndike


87. Classical conditioning theory was given by:


A. Skinner

B. Pavlov

C. Bandura

D. Kohler


88. The concept of "Discovery Learning" is associated with:


A. Jerome Bruner

B. Freud

C. Watson

D. Maslow

Teaching Methodology


89. The most suitable method for teaching science concepts through investigation is:


A. Lecture method

B. Inquiry method

C. Dictation method

D. Drill method


90. A teacher who encourages students to construct their own knowledge follows:


A. Behaviourism

B. Constructivism

C. Rote learning

D. Authoritarian approach


91. Demonstration method is most useful when:


A. Students need to observe a process or experiment

B. Only memorization is required

C. No teaching aid is available

D. Teacher avoids interaction


92. The main purpose of a teaching aid is to:


A. Replace the teacher

B. Make learning clear and effective

C. Reduce student participation

D. Increase homework

Assessment & Evaluation


93. A test used to identify learning difficulties is:


A. Summative test

B. Diagnostic test

C. Achievement test

D. Aptitude test


94. Assessment carried out during the teaching process is:


A. Formative assessment

B. Summative assessment

C. Terminal assessment

D. Placement assessment


95. Reliability of a test refers to:


A. Consistency of measurement

B. Difficulty level

C. Length of question paper

D. Number of questions


96. Evaluation conducted at the end of a course is:


A. Formative evaluation

B. Diagnostic evaluation

C. Summative evaluation

D. Continuous evaluation

Inclusive Education


97. Inclusive education means:


A. Educating all children together with support

B. Separating children with disabilities

C. Teaching only gifted children

D. Ignoring individual differences


98. CWSN stands for:


A. Children With Special Needs

B. Children With Social Nature

C. Child Welfare School Network

D. Community Work Support Network

ICT & NEP 2020


99. NEP 2020 emphasizes:


A. Rote memorization

B. Competency-based learning

C. Only textbook learning

D. Teacher-centred education


100. The role of a teacher in modern education is mainly:


A. Information provider only

B. Facilitator of learning

C. Controller of students

D. Examiner only


Q. No.

Answer

Q. No.

Answer

Q. No.

Answer

Q. No.

Answer

85

C

89

B

93

B

97

A

86

B

90

B

94

A

98

A

87

B

91

A

95

A

99

B

88

A

92

B

96

C

100

B








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