Odisha SSB TGT (CBZ) Mock Test – 1

Odisha SSB TGT (CBZ) Mock Test – 1

Pattern

Total Questions: 100

Total Marks: 150

Time: 2 Hours

Negative Marking: −0.5

Correct Answer: +1.5

Question Distribution

Q.1–28: Botany

Q.29–56: Zoology

Q.57–84: Chemistry

Q.85–100: Pedagogy & Evaluation

BOTANY (Questions 1–28)

Cell: Structure and Function

1. According to the Fluid Mosaic Model, the plasma membrane consists of:

A. Cellulose and proteins

B. Phospholipid bilayer with embedded proteins

C. Protein bilayer

D. Lipid monolayer

2. Which of the following is the largest cell organelle in a mature plant cell?

A. Nucleus

B. Mitochondrion

C. Vacuole

D. Chloroplast

3. Ribosomes responsible for protein synthesis in chloroplast are:

A. 80S

B. 70S

C. 60S

D. 50S

4. The selectively permeable membrane of the vacuole is called:

A. Plasmalemma

B. Tonoplast

C. Cell wall

D. Nuclear membrane

5. Which organelle is called the "Suicidal Bag" of the cell?

A. Golgi body

B. Lysosome

C. Ribosome

D. Endoplasmic reticulum

6. Cell wall is mainly composed of:

A. Chitin

B. Cellulose

C. Glycogen

D. Lignin

7. The power house of the cell is:

A. Golgi apparatus

B. Chloroplast

C. Mitochondrion

D. Peroxisome

8. Chromosomes become visible during:

A. Interphase

B. Prophase

C. Cytokinesis

D. G₁ phase

9. Which phase of mitosis is characterized by alignment of chromosomes at the equatorial plate?

A. Prophase

B. Metaphase

C. Anaphase

D. Telophase

10. Crossing over occurs during:

A. Leptotene

B. Zygotene

C. Pachytene

D. Diplotene

Biomolecules

11. The building blocks of proteins are:

A. Fatty acids

B. Amino acids

C. Nucleotides

D. Monosaccharides

12. Which carbohydrate is known as milk sugar?

A. Maltose

B. Lactose

C. Sucrose

D. Fructose

13. DNA contains which sugar?

A. Ribose

B. Deoxyribose

C. Glucose

D. Fructose

14. Which enzyme digests starch?

A. Pepsin

B. Trypsin

C. Amylase

D. Lipase

Plant Anatomy

15. Casparian strips occur in:

A. Epidermis

B. Cortex

C. Endodermis

D. Pericycle

16. Companion cells are associated with:

A. Xylem vessels

B. Tracheids

C. Sieve tubes

D. Fibres

17. Secondary growth occurs due to:

A. Apical meristem

B. Lateral meristem

C. Intercalary meristem

D. Epidermis

18. Which tissue provides mechanical strength to young stems?

A. Parenchyma

B. Collenchyma

C. Phloem

D. Epidermis

Photosynthesis

19. The light reaction occurs in:

A. Stroma

B. Thylakoid membrane

C. Cytoplasm

D. Matrix

20. Calvin cycle occurs in:

A. Grana

B. Stroma

C. Cytoplasm

D. Thylakoid lumen

21. The primary CO₂ acceptor in C₃ plants is:

A. PEP

B. RuBP

C. PGA

D. OAA

22. Kranz anatomy is found in:

A. Rice

B. Wheat

C. Maize

D. Pea

23. Which pigment acts as the reaction centre of Photosystem II?

A. P700

B. Chlorophyll b

C. P680

D. Xanthophyll

Respiration

24. Glycolysis occurs in:

A. Cytoplasm

B. Mitochondria

C. Chloroplast

D. Nucleus

25. Krebs cycle occurs in:

A. Cytoplasm

B. Mitochondrial matrix

C. Ribosome

D. Golgi body

Plant Growth & Mineral Nutrition

26. Which plant hormone promotes stem elongation?

A. ABA

B. Auxin

C. Ethylene

D. Cytokinin

27. Nitrogen is absorbed mainly by plants in the form of:

A. NH₄⁺ and NO₃⁻

B. N₂ gas

C. Urea

D. Amino acids

28. Which of the following is a micronutrient?

A. Nitrogen

B. Potassium

C. Zinc

D. Calcium

Q. No.	Answer	Q. No.	Answer	Q. No.	Answer	Q. No.	Answer
1	B	8	B	15	C	22	C
2	C	9	B	16	C	23	C
3	B	10	C	17	B	24	A
4	B	11	B	18	B	25	B
5	B	12	B	19	B	26	B
6	B	13	B	20	B	27	A
7	C	14	C	21	B	28	C

ZOOLOGY (Questions 29–56)

Human Physiology

29. The functional unit of the kidney is:

A. Neuron

B. Nephron

C. Alveolus

D. Osteon

30. Which part of the nephron is primarily responsible for ultrafiltration?

A. Loop of Henle

B. Proximal convoluted tubule

C. Glomerulus

D. Distal convoluted tubule

31. The hormone ADH mainly increases:

A. Glucose absorption

B. Water reabsorption in kidneys

C. Sodium excretion

D. Protein synthesis

32. The oxygen-carrying pigment of blood is:

A. Myoglobin

B. Hemocyanin

C. Hemoglobin

D. Melanin

33. Which blood group is called the universal recipient?

A. O

B. A

C. B

D. AB

34. The normal heartbeat is initiated by:

A. AV node

B. SA node

C. Bundle of His

D. Purkinje fibres

35. Which chamber of the human heart has the thickest muscular wall?

A. Right atrium

B. Left atrium

C. Right ventricle

D. Left ventricle

36. Which vitamin is essential for blood clotting?

A. Vitamin A

B. Vitamin D

C. Vitamin K

D. Vitamin C

Digestion

37. The enzyme pepsin acts in:

A. Mouth

B. Stomach

C. Small intestine

D. Large intestine

38. Bile juice is secreted by the:

A. Gall bladder

B. Pancreas

C. Liver

D. Duodenum

39. The main site of absorption of digested food is:

A. Stomach

B. Ileum

C. Rectum

D. Colon

Respiration

40. Gas exchange in the lungs occurs in:

A. Bronchi

B. Bronchioles

C. Alveoli

D. Trachea

41. The normal respiratory pigment in humans is:

A. Chlorophyll

B. Hemoglobin

C. Hemocyanin

D. Hemosiderin

Nervous System

42. The largest part of the human brain is:

A. Cerebellum

B. Medulla oblongata

C. Cerebrum

D. Hypothalamus

43. The reflex action is mainly controlled by the:

A. Cerebrum

B. Cerebellum

C. Spinal cord

D. Thalamus

Endocrine System

44. Insulin is secreted by:

A. Alpha cells

B. Beta cells

C. Delta cells

D. Acinar cells

45. Which gland is known as the "master gland"?

A. Thyroid

B. Adrenal

C. Pituitary

D. Pineal

Reproduction

46. Fertilization in humans usually occurs in the:

A. Ovary

B. Uterus

C. Ampulla of fallopian tube

D. Cervix

47. The placenta is formed between:

A. Ovary and uterus

B. Foetus and uterine wall

C. Cervix and vagina

D. Embryo and ovary

Genetics

48. Mendel's Law of Segregation is also called:

A. Law of Dominance

B. Law of Purity of Gametes

C. Law of Independent Assortment

D. Law of Variation

49. DNA replication is:

A. Conservative

B. Semi-conservative

C. Dispersive

D. Random

50. The genetic material in most organisms is:

A. RNA

B. DNA

C. Protein

D. Lipid

Evolution

51. Darwin proposed the theory of:

A. Mutation

B. Natural Selection

C. Inheritance of acquired characters

D. Germplasm

Biotechnology

52. PCR stands for:

A. Polymerase Chain Reaction

B. Protein Chain Reaction

C. Primary Cell Reaction

D. Polymer Cell Replication

53. Restriction enzymes are also known as:

A. Molecular scissors

B. Molecular pumps

C. Molecular motors

D. Molecular carriers

Ecology

54. The pyramid of energy is always:

A. Inverted

B. Upright

C. Spindle-shaped

D. Circular

55. Ozone depletion is mainly caused by:

A. CO₂

B. SO₂

C. CFCs

D. CH₄

56. Which of the following is a biodiversity hotspot in India?

A. Thar Desert

B. Western Ghats

C. Gangetic Plain

D. Deccan Plateau

Q	Ans	Q	Ans	Q	Ans	Q	Ans
29	B	36	C	43	C	50	B
30	C	37	B	44	B	51	B
31	B	38	C	45	C	52	A
32	C	39	B	46	C	53	A
33	D	40	C	47	B	54	B
34	B	41	B	48	B	55	C
35	D	42	C	49	B	56	B

CHEMISTRY (Questions 57–84)

Physical Chemistry

57. The SI unit of amount of substance is:

A. Gram

B. Mole

C. Kilogram

D. Equivalent

58. One mole of any substance contains:

A. 3.01 × 10²³ particles

B. 6.022 × 10²³ particles

C. 9.11 × 10²³ particles

D. 1.66 × 10²³ particles

59. The oxidation number of sulfur in H₂SO₄ is:

A. +4

B. +6

C. +2

D. –2

60. Which law states that the total pressure of a mixture of non-reacting gases equals the sum of their partial pressures?

A. Boyle's Law

B. Charles's Law

C. Dalton's Law

D. Graham's Law

61. The pH of a neutral solution at 25°C is:

A. 0

B. 7

C. 10

D. 14

62. Which electrolyte shows maximum electrical conductivity?

A. CH₃COOH

B. HCl

C. NH₄OH

D. H₂CO₃

63. The rate of a chemical reaction generally increases with:

A. Decrease in temperature

B. Increase in temperature

C. Decrease in concentration

D. Increase in pressure only

Inorganic Chemistry

64. The atomic number of carbon is:

A. 4

B. 6

C. 8

D. 12

65. Which element has the highest electronegativity?

A. Oxygen

B. Chlorine

C. Fluorine

D. Nitrogen

66. Which of the following is an alkali metal?

A. Calcium

B. Sodium

C. Magnesium

D. Aluminium

67. The oxidation state of chromium in K₂Cr₂O₇ is:

A. +2

B. +3

C. +6

D. +7

68. Which gas is known as laughing gas?

A. NO

B. NO₂

C. N₂O

D. NH₃

69. Aluminium is extracted by:

A. Blast furnace

B. Electrolytic reduction

C. Zone refining

D. Froth flotation

70. Which ore is the chief source of aluminium?

A. Haematite

B. Magnetite

C. Bauxite

D. Galena

Organic Chemistry

71. The IUPAC name of CH₃COOH is:

A. Methanoic acid

B. Ethanoic acid

C. Propanoic acid

D. Butanoic acid

72. Benzene belongs to which class of compounds?

A. Aliphatic

B. Aromatic

C. Alicyclic

D. Saturated

73. Which hydrocarbon is the simplest alkane?

A. Ethane

B. Methane

C. Propane

D. Butane

74. Which functional group is present in alcohols?

A. –CHO

B. –COOH

C. –OH

D. –NH₂

75. Which compound is a reducing sugar?

A. Sucrose

B. Glucose

C. Cellulose

D. Starch

76. Which of the following undergoes addition reactions?

A. Ethane

B. Methane

C. Ethene

D. Benzene

77. Which gas is evolved when sodium reacts with water?

A. Oxygen

B. Hydrogen

C. Nitrogen

D. Chlorine

Environmental Chemistry

78. Acid rain is mainly caused by:

A. CO₂ and CH₄

B. SO₂ and NOₓ

C. O₂ and N₂

D. NH₃ and H₂

79. The gas responsible for ozone depletion is:

A. CO₂

B. CH₄

C. CFCs

D. H₂

80. Greenhouse effect is mainly caused by:

A. Nitrogen

B. Carbon dioxide

C. Helium

D. Hydrogen

Mixed Chemistry

81. Which of the following is a strong acid?

A. Acetic acid

B. Carbonic acid

C. Hydrochloric acid

D. Formic acid

82. Which metal reacts vigorously with cold water?

A. Copper

B. Iron

C. Sodium

D. Silver

83. Avogadro's law states that equal volumes of gases at the same temperature and pressure contain:

A. Equal masses

B. Equal numbers of molecules

C. Equal densities

D. Equal atomic masses

84. The SI unit of molar conductivity is:

A. S m² mol⁻¹

B. Ω m

C. S cm⁻¹

D. Ω cm

Q	Ans	Q	Ans	Q	Ans	Q	Ans
57	B	64	B	71	B	78	B
58	B	65	C	72	B	79	C
59	B	66	B	73	B	80	B
60	C	67	C	74	C	81	C
61	B	68	C	75	B	82	C
62	B	69	B	76	C	83	B
63	B	70	C	77	B	84	A

PEDAGOGY & EVALUATION (Questions 85–100)

Educational Psychology

85. According to Jean Piaget, abstract logical thinking develops during the:

A. Sensorimotor Stage

B. Pre-operational Stage

C. Concrete Operational Stage

D. Formal Operational Stage

86. The concept of the Zone of Proximal Development (ZPD) was proposed by:

A. Jean Piaget

B. Lev Vygotsky

C. Jerome Bruner

D. Edward Thorndike

87. Which learning theory emphasizes reinforcement?

A. Constructivism

B. Behaviorism

C. Humanism

D. Gestalt Theory

88. "Learning by Doing" is mainly associated with:

A. John Dewey

B. B. F. Skinner

C. Ivan Pavlov

D. Sigmund Freud

Teaching Methodology

89. Which method is most suitable for developing scientific attitude among students?

A. Lecture Method

B. Demonstration Method

C. Inquiry Method

D. Dictation Method

90. Which teaching aid is most effective for explaining the structure of DNA?

A. Blackboard

B. Chart

C. Three-dimensional Model

D. Audio Recording

91. While teaching Biology, a teacher asks students to perform an experiment and draw conclusions. This approach is:

A. Teacher-centred

B. Inquiry-based learning

C. Lecture method

D. Drill method

92. Which of the following is the most learner-centred teaching strategy?

A. Lecture

B. Project Method

C. Dictation

D. Recitation

Assessment & Evaluation

93. Formative assessment is mainly used:

A. To award grades

B. To improve learning during instruction

C. To declare final results

D. To rank students

94. Diagnostic assessment is conducted to:

A. Certify students

B. Identify learning difficulties

C. Promote students

D. Compare schools

95. Bloom's revised taxonomy places "Create" at:

A. Lowest level

B. Middle level

C. Highest cognitive level

D. Second level

96. Which assessment is generally conducted at the end of a course?

A. Diagnostic Assessment

B. Placement Assessment

C. Formative Assessment

D. Summative Assessment

Inclusive Education & ICT

97. Inclusive education aims to:

A. Separate children based on ability

B. Educate all children together with appropriate support

C. Teach only gifted students

D. Exclude children with disabilities

98. ICT in teaching mainly helps to:

A. Replace teachers completely

B. Enhance teaching-learning through technology

C. Reduce classroom interaction

D. Eliminate practical work

NEP 2020 & Professional Ethics

99. The National Education Policy (NEP) 2020 emphasizes:

A. Rote learning

B. Competency-based learning

C. Only annual examinations

D. Memorization of textbooks

100. A professionally competent teacher should:

A. Discourage student questions

B. Use only one teaching method

C. Continuously update subject knowledge and teaching skills

D. Depend only on textbooks

Q.	Ans	Q.	Ans	Q.	Ans	Q.	Ans
85	D	89	C	93	B	97	B
86	B	90	C	94	B	98	B
87	B	91	B	95	C	99	B
88	A	92	B	96	D	100	C

Soils and Their Other Names (Exam-Oriented) SSB TGT / RHT /LTR/SSC/SSC/ OSSSC

Meaning of Soil

Soil is the uppermost layer of the Earth’s crust formed by the weathering of rocks and the decomposition of organic matter, capable of supporting plant life.

Scientific Definition:

Soil is a natural body composed of minerals, organic matter, water, air, and living organisms.

Types of Soils (India – Very Important)

1. Alluvial Soil

• Found in: Ganga, Brahmaputra plains
• Rich in potash
• Good for rice & wheat
• Also called: Riverine soil

2. Black Soil

• Also called Regur Soil
• Found in: Maharashtra, Gujarat
• Best for cotton
• Retains moisture

3. Red Soil

• Rich in iron
• Found in: Odisha, Tamil Nadu
• Red color due to iron oxide

4. Laterite Soil

• Found in high rainfall areas
• Found in: Kerala
• Poor in fertility
• Suitable for tea & coffee

5. Desert Soil

• Found in: Rajasthan
• Sandy texture
• Low humus

6. Mountain/Forest Soil

• Found in: Himalayas
• Rich in organic matter

  

Main Soil Name	Other Name(s)	Important Exam Point
Black Soil	Regur Soil, Black Cotton Soil	Best for cotton
Alluvial Soil	Riverine Soil	Deposited by rivers
New Alluvial Soil	Khadar Soil	More fertile
Old Alluvial Soil	Bhangar Soil	Less fertile
Red Soil	Red & Yellow Soil	Iron oxide gives red colour
Laterite Soil	Brick Soil, Lateritic Soil	Hardens like brick on drying
Desert Soil	Arid Soil	Sandy, low humus
Saline Soil	Reh Soil, Usar Soil	High salt content
Mountain Soil	Forest Soil	Found in hilly regions
Peaty Soil	Marshy Soil	Rich in organic matter

Study of soil → Pedology

Soil scientist → Pedologist

Soil fertility depends on → Humus

Soil erosion by wind → Deflation

Removal of topsoil → Soil Erosion

Conservation method → Contour Ploughing

Feedback Mechanism – Structured vs. Unstructured; Use of Feedback for Effective School Functioning Odisha BE.d

Feedback Mechanism – Structured vs. Unstructured; Use of Feedback for Effective School Functioning

Introduction

In the context of school education, a feedback mechanism refers to the process of collecting, analyzing, and utilizing information from stakeholders (students, teachers, parents, administrators, community, etc.) to assess and improve school functioning. Feedback is essential for continuous improvement, identifying gaps, and planning interventions.

There are two broad types of feedback mechanisms:

• Structured
• Unstructured

Each has its own purpose, strengths, and limitations.

Structured Feedback Mechanism

Structured feedback mechanisms are systematic, planned, and standardized processes used to collect information using defined tools and processes.

Features:

• Follows a predetermined format or tool.
• Uses instruments like surveys, questionnaires, checklists, rubrics.
• Data is quantifiable and comparable.
• Usually conducted periodically.

Examples:

Teacher performance surveys filled by students or supervisors.

Parent feedback forms after PTMs.

Student learning outcomes evaluated through structured assessments.

Shaala Siddhi framework and UDISE+ reports.

Advantages:

• Objective and data-driven.
• Easy to analyze, record, and compare over time.
• Can inform policy decisions, planning, and budget allocation.

Limitations:

• May not capture context-specific, emotional, or nuanced insights.
• Risk of mechanical or superficial responses.

Unstructured Feedback Mechanism

Unstructured feedback is informal, open-ended, and spontaneous. It allows for free expression of opinions and feelings without the constraints of a format.

Features:

• Open discussions, suggestions, opinions.
• Not limited to a format or timeframe.
• Encourages authentic, real-time, and emotional responses.

Examples:

Conversations during school visits by CRC/BRC officers.

Feedback from SMC/SMDC or PTA meetings.

Verbal suggestions from students and teachers.

Social media comments or informal WhatsApp groups.

Advantages:

• Rich and detailed responses.
• Helps identify hidden issues, interpersonal problems, school culture.
• Promotes trust and openness in school relationships.

Limitations:

• Subjective and hard to quantify.
• Difficult to compare or track over time.
• May be ignored or undocumented.

Use of Feedback for Effective School Functioning

Feedback, whether structured or unstructured, can greatly enhance the quality and efficiency of school operations when used properly.

a. Improving Teaching-Learning

Student feedback helps in improving teacher methods, use of TLMs, and classroom management.

Enables teachers to understand learning needs, difficulties, and preferences.

b. Planning and Decision Making

Structured feedback informs the School Development Plan (SDP).

Helps in resource allocation, timetable planning, activity scheduling.

c. Teacher Professional Development

Teacher feedback is used to identify training needs, subject mastery, or gaps in pedagogy.

d. Infrastructure and Facility Management

Feedback from parents and SMCs highlights issues in water, sanitation, midday meals, furniture, etc.

Helps prioritize maintenance and development work.

e. Promoting Accountability and Transparency

Public sharing of feedback reports during SMC/PTA meetings fosters accountability.

Builds community trust and ownership.

f. Strengthening Relationships

Unstructured feedback improves communication among stakeholders.

Encourages collaboration between school and community.

Challenges in Feedback Utilization

• Lack of proper documentation of unstructured feedback.
• Structured tools may not be contextually relevant.
• Feedback is sometimes ignored or not acted upon.
• Fear of criticism may limit honest feedback from students or parents.
• Data overload without meaningful analysis.

Suggestions to Improve Feedback Mechanism

• Train school leaders and teachers on how to collect, analyze, and use feedback constructively.
• Use digital tools (mobile apps, Google Forms, etc.) for faster and broader feedback collection.
• Integrate both structured and unstructured methods for a complete picture.
• Establish a follow-up mechanism to act on feedback.
• Involve SMC and local communities in analyzing and using feedback for school improvement.

Conclusion

Feedback mechanisms, both structured and unstructured, are indispensable tools for improving school education. When used effectively, they ensure that the school becomes responsive, reflective, and student-centric. Integrating feedback into school processes promotes a culture of continuous learning, transparency, and accountability—hallmarks of a quality education system.

 

First Battle of Panipat 1526. GS Indian History For All Competitive Exam

First Battle of Panipat

Year   21 April 1526

Fought Between

Babur (Ruler of Kabul, founder of Mughal Empire)

Ibrahim Lodi (Sultan of the Delhi Sultanate)

Place

Panipat, in present-day Haryana, about 90 km north of Delhi

Who Won

Babur defeated Ibrahim Lodi.

Ibrahim Lodi was killed in the battlefield.

This victory led to the establishment of the Mughal Empire in India.

Background

The Lodi Dynasty was ruling the Delhi Sultanate before this battle.

Ibrahim Lodi was the last ruler of the Lodi dynasty.

Many Afghan nobles and governors were unhappy with Ibrahim Lodi’s rule.

Some nobles invited Babur to invade India and remove Ibrahim Lodi.

Babur was already looking for opportunities to expand his empire into India.

Causes of the Battle

Weak leadership of Ibrahim Lodi and conflicts with nobles.

Afghan nobles invited Babur to attack Delhi.

Babur wanted to establish his rule in India.

Strategic importance and wealth of the Indian subcontinent.

Strength of the Armies

Babur’s Army

Around 12,000 soldiers

Included cavalry and skilled archers

Used artillery (guns and cannons)

Ibrahim Lodi’s Army

Around 100,000 soldiers

About 1000 war elephants

Traditional Indian military system

Military Strategy Used by Babur

Babur used two important strategies:

1. Tulughma Strategy

Dividing the army into several mobile units to attack from different sides.

2. Araba System

Use of carts tied together as defensive barricades.

Cannons were placed behind these carts.

These strategies helped Babur defeat a much larger army.

Course of the Battle

The battle took place on 21 April 1526.

Babur arranged his troops with artillery in the center.

Cannons created panic among Ibrahim Lodi’s army and elephants.

Babur’s cavalry attacked from the sides.

Ibrahim Lodi’s army became disorganized.

Ibrahim Lodi was killed in the battlefield.

Babur achieved a decisive victory.

Impact / Consequences

End of the Lodi Dynasty in India.

Beginning of the Mughal Empire.

Introduction of gunpowder and artillery warfare in Indian battles.

Babur captured Delhi and Agra.

A new era of Mughal rule started in India.